Waco1947 said:JXL said:Waco1947 said:
JXL: Read the text carefully 19:3 Some Pharisees wanted to test Jesus. They came up to him and asked, "Is it right for a man to divorce his wife for just any reason?"
The question was not "Can a man divorce his man?"
A Bible student like you should be more careful
That's correct, the specific context of Jesus' statement was a question about divorce.
But in order to have a divorce, you first have to have what? A marriage!
And specifically the question was about man and a woman, not man and man; or woman and woman. Jesus, answered the question asked him about a man - woman marriage. That's a literal answer. I am sorry the text doe3s not support your bias. Well not really sorry. I am sorry that you are biased against LGBTQ because of your narrow religious upbringing.
If you really believe the Bible and Matthew 19 then you have to acknowledge that Jesus was asked a man and woman and He answered accordingly.
Try again.
Have you not read that from the beginning the Creator made them male and female, 5 and said, 'For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and will be united with his wife, and the two will become one flesh'?
From the beginning God created man and woman, and for this reason (ie the creation of man and woman) a man will leave his parents and marry a woman.
Your interpretation says that because God created man and woman, a man will marry another man, which makes no sense. Why would the creation of man and woman be a reason for a man to marry another man?
If it had been up to me I would have created a system of civil unions to allow gay couples to have all of the legal rights of straight married couples. But let's not pretend it's any sort of Biblical marriage.