A Tale of Three Churches

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Mothra
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FLBear5630 said:

Mothra said:

FLBear5630 said:

Mothra said:

Sam Lowry said:

Mothra said:

Sam Lowry said:

Mothra said:

Doc Holliday said:

Scripture does not interpret itself. Without a singular, visible, and continuous teaching authority (the Church) Christianity inevitably fragments and begins absorbing secular moral frameworks. This isn't speculative…it's observable. Once doctrinal authority became decentralized, moral authority soon follows. The result is what we see today: denominations and even individual congregations affirming abortion, woke ideology, redefining righteousness along cultural lines, and preaching assurance of salvation in ways that collapse into practical antinomianism.

This is not an accidental byproduct, it's a structural consequence. If no final authority exists to definitively say "this is the apostolic faith and this is not," then disagreement has no principled stopping point. Interpretation becomes governed not by tradition but by preference, culture, and institutional survival.

Christianity did not function this way in the past. For the first millennium, doctrine was guarded by the Church as a unified body: conciliar, sacramental, and hierarchical. The rupture in 1054 was not a cultural or political dispute; it marked a fundamental challenge to how authority itself was understood and exercised. Once that challenge was normalized, further fragmentation became inevitable.

The Protestant reformers repeated this pattern in a more radical form. Rejecting both Rome and the early conciliar Church, authority was relocated from the historical Church into the judgment of the individual or local community. In practice, this produced not freedom but a multiplication of competing "final authorities," each functionally operating as its own pope, without the apostolic continuity or corrective mechanisms that historically restrained doctrinal drift.

By contrast, the claim of the Orthodox Church is not that bishops are infallible individuals, but that the Church as a whole, guided by the Holy Spirit and preserved through apostolic succession, serves as the living interpreter of Scripture. Scripture belongs to the Church, not the other way around.

Once that principle is abandoned, Christianity doesn't remain neutral. It doesn't simply "stick to the Bible." It slowly conforms to the moral assumptions of the surrounding culture. The present state of doctrinal and moral confusion across much of Western Christianity is not a mystery, it's the predictable outcome of rejecting a singular, historical authority in favor of interpretive autonomy.

ChatGPT hogwash. It took Martin Luther merely reading Romans for the first time to begin the reformation. He went against the great weight of tradition and Catholic teaching in reaching his conclusions, simply because he read Romans for himself. The idea that all scripture requires some historical or traditional context to understand it is just pure nonsense. We don't need "His Imminence" to explain salvation.

How to talk about interpretation with someone who doesn't know they're interpreting? It's just amazing.

Looks like you and I are using the term "interpretation" very differently. If by interpretation, you are generally (and broadly) referring to someone's understanding of the meaning of text, sure, we all "interpret." But as as you of course well know, I was using that term much more narrowly (and appropriately in this context) to refer to passages of scripture that are difficult to comprehend, and therefore may require reference to either other passages, elders, or theologians to decipher.

In other words, there are some passages of scripture that are difficult to comprehend, undoubtedly. Others are stated plainly and succinctly, and don't require outside sources to understand their true meaning. We know their plain meaning just by reading them.

Not difficult concepts if one is not obtuse.

The problem is that so much of what you consider self-evident is actually interpretation by you or whatever church traditions you've been influenced by. It might make sense to you that no one was smart enough to see what's plainly obvious until you and Luther came along, but others would question that assumption. I'm not necessarily saying your beliefs are wrong, but anyone should see that they're at least debatable.

I don't disagree that environment influences how we think about things, including scripture. What I do dispute is that church tradition is the lens through which one must look to understand and find meaning in scripture - a position which you (and Doc) seem to hold.

The question should be for those of us seeking the truth in scripture is what does the great weight of scripture convey? Does it contradict the beliefs I've been taught, or that my particular denomination holds? These things can be understood often times by simply reading scripture with an open mind.

Being that the Bible was constructed by the early Church, consecrated over a series of Church Councils and even the Protestants that broke away were trained by the Church wouldn't that be the only way you could truly understand the context?

You said earlier that all Luther had to do was read Romans for himself. I would disagree, as an Augustinian Monk that is ALL he did was read scripture. There was another impetuous that prompted the action he took and another support group that nurtured it. It was not that he was finally allowed to read Romans after 10 years as a priest. There were other outside forces playing into the equation.

You need to read some biographies on Luther. His reading of Romans for the first time is what sparked his conversion.

It is neither here nor there. Whether he had an "Aha!" moment or it came to him over time is debated as his own writings contradict themselves.

I know the Lutheran's like the flash of light and ground shaking the first time he laid eyes on Romans. But, scholars disagree. For one thing, his age and being a new Professor. It would be highly unlikely for someone that new to have the confidence to do what he did. His writings on the first time were in the 1840's and the contradictory writings are from something like 1813 to 1815. But being a scholar he read the Bible quite regularly. Who knows that notion may have stuck with him. It is a debatable item though.

My Wife was Lutheran (WELS), so I have been down the Luther road once or twice. Seems to me it depends on what point they are making. If it is a scriptural point, it is the "AHA!" Romans moment. If it is a Catholic Church corruption point it is John Tetzle. If it is a "we are not worthy" point, it is when he was cleaning and the box of rags story. Or, the God is all powerful is the Lightning bolt story...


To the contrary, it is completely on point. When Luther himself attributed his conversion to reading Romans for himself the first time, that is kind of all you need to know.

I prefer to take the man's words than attribute it to speculative reasons, as you are doing.
BusyTarpDuster2017
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Sam Lowry said:

Mothra said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Doc Holliday said:

Just so we're clear on the historical facts: the Church existed before a fixed New Testament canon: the canon did not exist before the Church. The New Testament canon emerged gradually and only reached broad consensus through 4th century ecclesial judgments. Whatever one's theology, Scripture historically presupposes the Church rather than creating it.

There is no version of history in which the canon drops from heaven already bound and indexed. There's no coherent account of the canon, Protestant, Catholic, or Orthodox, in which human beings are not actively involved in identifying, delimiting, and excluding books. Calling that process "recognition" does not remove the element of judgment, it renames it.

Everyone agrees God is the source of Scripture. The question is not who gives the canon, but how humans can know with binding certainty which books God gave. Disagreements over Hebrews, James, Revelation, and other books show that this knowledge was not self evident and required authoritative resolution.

If the authority involved is fallible, then the canon is fallible. If the canon is infallible, then the authority that identified it must also be infallible. There is no third option that avoids reliance on human authority.

If you're listening to the authority of God (i.e. Jesus Christ), then you've been told what that canon is - the Tanakh and the words of the apostles, whom he sent to the world to proclaim his word.

But the Apostles were fallible. Not everything they said was inspired by God.

So again, how do we know what's inspired and what isn't?

Jesus said their testimony of him IS inspired by God. I guess you really AREN'T paying attention.

So, everything the Apostles said was inspired by God?

So, are you really this dull?

Let's say I am. Were the Apostles infallible or not? And if not, how do we know everything they wrote in the New Testament was inspired?

"Know" in what way?

Any way you choose to define it.

We know by faith in the testimony of the apostles of the life, death, and resurrection of Jesus Christ.

So the Apostles were not infallible, but everything they said was inspired. Do I have that right?

It's interesting that you are attacking the authority of scripture in an attempt to prove that Catholic traditions should be given the same or similar weight. Unfortunately, your argument isn't the "gotcha" you think it is.

In short, the answer to your question for anyone who is truly of Christ is "yes." Fallible men, inspired by God, wrote the Bible. And as Busty said, those of us who call ourselves Christian know this by faith, and faith alone.

That of course has nothing whatsoever to do with whether an extra-biblical teaching that, in many cases, contradict scripture are on par with same.

Again, I'm not arguing against the authority of Scripture. The Bible is inerrant on matters of faith and morals. But the Apostles themselves were not. The authorship of some books is also in doubt. So, the fact that the New Testament contains "everything we know came from the Apostles" doesn't explain why it's canon.

You are acknowledging that the everything the apostles said in Scripture was inerrant. You are agreeing with everything I had said, even while you played the dishonest contrarian.

And yes, everything we know that came from the apostles is only in Scripture and nowhere else. Can you cite an exception?
FLBear5630
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Mothra said:

FLBear5630 said:

Mothra said:

FLBear5630 said:

Mothra said:

Sam Lowry said:

Mothra said:

Sam Lowry said:

Mothra said:

Doc Holliday said:

Scripture does not interpret itself. Without a singular, visible, and continuous teaching authority (the Church) Christianity inevitably fragments and begins absorbing secular moral frameworks. This isn't speculative…it's observable. Once doctrinal authority became decentralized, moral authority soon follows. The result is what we see today: denominations and even individual congregations affirming abortion, woke ideology, redefining righteousness along cultural lines, and preaching assurance of salvation in ways that collapse into practical antinomianism.

This is not an accidental byproduct, it's a structural consequence. If no final authority exists to definitively say "this is the apostolic faith and this is not," then disagreement has no principled stopping point. Interpretation becomes governed not by tradition but by preference, culture, and institutional survival.

Christianity did not function this way in the past. For the first millennium, doctrine was guarded by the Church as a unified body: conciliar, sacramental, and hierarchical. The rupture in 1054 was not a cultural or political dispute; it marked a fundamental challenge to how authority itself was understood and exercised. Once that challenge was normalized, further fragmentation became inevitable.

The Protestant reformers repeated this pattern in a more radical form. Rejecting both Rome and the early conciliar Church, authority was relocated from the historical Church into the judgment of the individual or local community. In practice, this produced not freedom but a multiplication of competing "final authorities," each functionally operating as its own pope, without the apostolic continuity or corrective mechanisms that historically restrained doctrinal drift.

By contrast, the claim of the Orthodox Church is not that bishops are infallible individuals, but that the Church as a whole, guided by the Holy Spirit and preserved through apostolic succession, serves as the living interpreter of Scripture. Scripture belongs to the Church, not the other way around.

Once that principle is abandoned, Christianity doesn't remain neutral. It doesn't simply "stick to the Bible." It slowly conforms to the moral assumptions of the surrounding culture. The present state of doctrinal and moral confusion across much of Western Christianity is not a mystery, it's the predictable outcome of rejecting a singular, historical authority in favor of interpretive autonomy.

ChatGPT hogwash. It took Martin Luther merely reading Romans for the first time to begin the reformation. He went against the great weight of tradition and Catholic teaching in reaching his conclusions, simply because he read Romans for himself. The idea that all scripture requires some historical or traditional context to understand it is just pure nonsense. We don't need "His Imminence" to explain salvation.

How to talk about interpretation with someone who doesn't know they're interpreting? It's just amazing.

Looks like you and I are using the term "interpretation" very differently. If by interpretation, you are generally (and broadly) referring to someone's understanding of the meaning of text, sure, we all "interpret." But as as you of course well know, I was using that term much more narrowly (and appropriately in this context) to refer to passages of scripture that are difficult to comprehend, and therefore may require reference to either other passages, elders, or theologians to decipher.

In other words, there are some passages of scripture that are difficult to comprehend, undoubtedly. Others are stated plainly and succinctly, and don't require outside sources to understand their true meaning. We know their plain meaning just by reading them.

Not difficult concepts if one is not obtuse.

The problem is that so much of what you consider self-evident is actually interpretation by you or whatever church traditions you've been influenced by. It might make sense to you that no one was smart enough to see what's plainly obvious until you and Luther came along, but others would question that assumption. I'm not necessarily saying your beliefs are wrong, but anyone should see that they're at least debatable.

I don't disagree that environment influences how we think about things, including scripture. What I do dispute is that church tradition is the lens through which one must look to understand and find meaning in scripture - a position which you (and Doc) seem to hold.

The question should be for those of us seeking the truth in scripture is what does the great weight of scripture convey? Does it contradict the beliefs I've been taught, or that my particular denomination holds? These things can be understood often times by simply reading scripture with an open mind.

Being that the Bible was constructed by the early Church, consecrated over a series of Church Councils and even the Protestants that broke away were trained by the Church wouldn't that be the only way you could truly understand the context?

You said earlier that all Luther had to do was read Romans for himself. I would disagree, as an Augustinian Monk that is ALL he did was read scripture. There was another impetuous that prompted the action he took and another support group that nurtured it. It was not that he was finally allowed to read Romans after 10 years as a priest. There were other outside forces playing into the equation.

You need to read some biographies on Luther. His reading of Romans for the first time is what sparked his conversion.

It is neither here nor there. Whether he had an "Aha!" moment or it came to him over time is debated as his own writings contradict themselves.

I know the Lutheran's like the flash of light and ground shaking the first time he laid eyes on Romans. But, scholars disagree. For one thing, his age and being a new Professor. It would be highly unlikely for someone that new to have the confidence to do what he did. His writings on the first time were in the 1840's and the contradictory writings are from something like 1813 to 1815. But being a scholar he read the Bible quite regularly. Who knows that notion may have stuck with him. It is a debatable item though.

My Wife was Lutheran (WELS), so I have been down the Luther road once or twice. Seems to me it depends on what point they are making. If it is a scriptural point, it is the "AHA!" Romans moment. If it is a Catholic Church corruption point it is John Tetzle. If it is a "we are not worthy" point, it is when he was cleaning and the box of rags story. Or, the God is all powerful is the Lightning bolt story...


To the contrary, it is completely on point. When Luther himself attributed his conversion to reading Romans for himself the first time, that is kind of all you need to know.

I prefer to take the man's words than attribute it to speculative reasons, as you are doing.

His writings contradict each other. He didn't say that when he was younger. He said it at the end in his biography, after he was the "legend". How much is real and how much is ego? If you think Luther didn't have an ego, than you haven't studied that period very well!
BusyTarpDuster2017
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Doc Holliday said:

Scripture does not interpret itself. Without a singular, visible, and continuous teaching authority (the Church) Christianity inevitably fragments and begins absorbing secular moral frameworks. This isn't speculative…it's observable. Once doctrinal authority became decentralized, moral authority soon follows. The result is what we see today: denominations and even individual congregations affirming abortion, woke ideology, redefining righteousness along cultural lines, and preaching assurance of salvation in ways that collapse into practical antinomianism.

So then what do you do when the central doctrinal authority which claims interpretive and doctrinal infallilbility is itself corrupted?

Moral authority is never decentralized. We have God's word as a standard, and we have the Holy Spirit.

We are expected to obey God. We first and foremost obey God by believing in his Son Jesus. We are expected to obey God through obeying Jesus. However, our salvation is not dependent on our obedience, but rather, through our faith in Jesus. Both are true. This is the gospel, it isn't antinomianism. Anyone who believes the gospel frees them up to sin all they want, isn't a believer to begin with.
BusyTarpDuster2017
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Sam Lowry said:

You're picking a fight where there isn't one. The canon is the canon. My question is why.

Catholics believe the Bible is inerrant on matters of faith and morals, not necessarily science, history, etc. (though I believe it's more historically accurate than many realize).

Why won't you, CokeBear, Doc, or Florida answer my question? It was really simple:

When did a writing become the word of God - right as it was being written, or only after it was deemed so by an authority of men?

I think we all know why you guys completely avoided this question.
Doc Holliday
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BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Doc Holliday said:

Scripture does not interpret itself. Without a singular, visible, and continuous teaching authority (the Church) Christianity inevitably fragments and begins absorbing secular moral frameworks. This isn't speculative…it's observable. Once doctrinal authority became decentralized, moral authority soon follows. The result is what we see today: denominations and even individual congregations affirming abortion, woke ideology, redefining righteousness along cultural lines, and preaching assurance of salvation in ways that collapse into practical antinomianism.

So then what do you do when the central doctrinal authority which claims interpretive and doctrinal infallilbility is itself corrupted?

Moral authority is never decentralized. We have God's word as a standard, and we have the Holy Spirit.

We are expected to obey God. We first and foremost obey God by believing in his Son Jesus. We are expected to obey God through obeying Jesus. However, our salvation is not dependent on our obedience, but rather, through our faith in Jesus. Both are true. This is the gospel, it isn't antinomianism. Anyone who believes the gospel frees them up to sin all they want, isn't a believer to begin with.

A concept of a single "central doctrinal authority" becoming "corrupted" in a way that compromises the entire faith's infallibility is a situation the Orthodox framework is designed to avoid. If high ranking officials (even patriarchs) fall into error or heresy throughout history, they were resisted by other bishops, clergy, and the laity, and their mistaken views were ultimately rejected by the broader Church, often through a subsequent council. Basically the Church as a whole is considered incapable of falling away from the truth, even if individual members or entire regional sections temporarily fail. This is part of why I reject the papacy because there's a democracy of the Holy Spirit with this concept, they're all holding each other accountable, not one guy making the final call.

The book of acts set forth this very model. In light of a controversy the apostles got together and all came to the conclusion on a matter: Peter spoke and James confirmed him as the head of the council in Jerusalem. If Peter was thought to be the end all be all...why the council? Why the need for consensus? "It seemed good to the Holy Spirit and to us".

You actually probably agree with me on salvation when fleshed out, but I want to show you why that separating works and faith presents a risk to many people. The disagreements are actually mostly on the protestant side over whether faith requires active participation or not.

Some people without fulfilling the commandments think that they possess true faith. Others fulfill the commandments and expect the kingdom as a reward they're due. Both are in the wrong.
Let me be very clear: I'm not arguing that works save us. Anyone arguing that is wrong. Anyone arguing that faith is mere mental assent is also wrong.

You said "Anyone who believes the gospel frees them up to sin all they want, isn't a believer to begin with". That statement brings faith/works back together. Fruit of faith IS NOT the instrument of salvation but is the consequence of faith. When you combine this understanding with the fact that we never lose willpower, then we MUST actively participate.

Even the demons believe and shudder. There is 'something' that we are to "endure" to the very end. There is 'something' that we are to strive for. There is 'something' that we are to "do" that God will not do for us, that He 'expects' us to do for ourselves because our faith is real. Its very clear that scripture demonstrates that human freedom can resist or cooperate with grace.

Don't confuse the Orthodox position with the catholic view, because its the opposite. The sacraments are gifts and aids that help us grow in grace and deepen our communion with Christ, but they are not conditions for being saved.
Sam Lowry
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BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

You're picking a fight where there isn't one. The canon is the canon. My question is why.

Catholics believe the Bible is inerrant on matters of faith and morals, not necessarily science, history, etc. (though I believe it's more historically accurate than many realize).

Why won't you, CokeBear, Doc, or Florida answer my question? It was really simple:

When did a writing become the word of God - right as it was being written, or only after it was deemed so by an authority of men?

I think we all know why you guys completely avoided this question.
When it was written, obviously. My question to you is, how do we know it's the word of God? Authorship by an Apostle, though of prime importance, is neither sufficient nor necessary.
BusyTarpDuster2017
How long do you want to ignore this user?
Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

You're picking a fight where there isn't one. The canon is the canon. My question is why.

Catholics believe the Bible is inerrant on matters of faith and morals, not necessarily science, history, etc. (though I believe it's more historically accurate than many realize).

Why won't you, CokeBear, Doc, or Florida answer my question? It was really simple:

When did a writing become the word of God - right as it was being written, or only after it was deemed so by an authority of men?

I think we all know why you guys completely avoided this question.

When it was written, obviously. My question to you is, how do we know it's the word of God? Authorship by an Apostle, though of prime importance, is neither sufficient nor necessary.

So then it's GOD that decides the canon, not man, correct?

And I've already answered your question about the apostles - repeatedly. You really should stop trying to play games.
Doc Holliday
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BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

You're picking a fight where there isn't one. The canon is the canon. My question is why.

Catholics believe the Bible is inerrant on matters of faith and morals, not necessarily science, history, etc. (though I believe it's more historically accurate than many realize).

Why won't you, CokeBear, Doc, or Florida answer my question? It was really simple:

When did a writing become the word of God - right as it was being written, or only after it was deemed so by an authority of men?

I think we all know why you guys completely avoided this question.

When it was written, obviously. My question to you is, how do we know it's the word of God? Authorship by an Apostle, though of prime importance, is neither sufficient nor necessary.

So then it's GOD that decides the canon, not man, correct?

And I've already answered your question about the apostles - repeatedly. You really should stop trying to play games.
Canon means recognition of scripture, not the process of scripture coming to fruition.

So when did God decide what is and isn't legit scripture? How did he go about that?
Realitybites
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Mothra said:

FLBear5630 said:

Mothra said:

FLBear5630 said:

Mothra said:

Sam Lowry said:

Mothra said:

Sam Lowry said:

Mothra said:

Doc Holliday said:

Scripture does not interpret itself. Without a singular, visible, and continuous teaching authority (the Church) Christianity inevitably fragments and begins absorbing secular moral frameworks. This isn't speculative…it's observable. Once doctrinal authority became decentralized, moral authority soon follows. The result is what we see today: denominations and even individual congregations affirming abortion, woke ideology, redefining righteousness along cultural lines, and preaching assurance of salvation in ways that collapse into practical antinomianism.

This is not an accidental byproduct, it's a structural consequence. If no final authority exists to definitively say "this is the apostolic faith and this is not," then disagreement has no principled stopping point. Interpretation becomes governed not by tradition but by preference, culture, and institutional survival.

Christianity did not function this way in the past. For the first millennium, doctrine was guarded by the Church as a unified body: conciliar, sacramental, and hierarchical. The rupture in 1054 was not a cultural or political dispute; it marked a fundamental challenge to how authority itself was understood and exercised. Once that challenge was normalized, further fragmentation became inevitable.

The Protestant reformers repeated this pattern in a more radical form. Rejecting both Rome and the early conciliar Church, authority was relocated from the historical Church into the judgment of the individual or local community. In practice, this produced not freedom but a multiplication of competing "final authorities," each functionally operating as its own pope, without the apostolic continuity or corrective mechanisms that historically restrained doctrinal drift.

By contrast, the claim of the Orthodox Church is not that bishops are infallible individuals, but that the Church as a whole, guided by the Holy Spirit and preserved through apostolic succession, serves as the living interpreter of Scripture. Scripture belongs to the Church, not the other way around.

Once that principle is abandoned, Christianity doesn't remain neutral. It doesn't simply "stick to the Bible." It slowly conforms to the moral assumptions of the surrounding culture. The present state of doctrinal and moral confusion across much of Western Christianity is not a mystery, it's the predictable outcome of rejecting a singular, historical authority in favor of interpretive autonomy.

ChatGPT hogwash. It took Martin Luther merely reading Romans for the first time to begin the reformation. He went against the great weight of tradition and Catholic teaching in reaching his conclusions, simply because he read Romans for himself. The idea that all scripture requires some historical or traditional context to understand it is just pure nonsense. We don't need "His Imminence" to explain salvation.

How to talk about interpretation with someone who doesn't know they're interpreting? It's just amazing.

Looks like you and I are using the term "interpretation" very differently. If by interpretation, you are generally (and broadly) referring to someone's understanding of the meaning of text, sure, we all "interpret." But as as you of course well know, I was using that term much more narrowly (and appropriately in this context) to refer to passages of scripture that are difficult to comprehend, and therefore may require reference to either other passages, elders, or theologians to decipher.

In other words, there are some passages of scripture that are difficult to comprehend, undoubtedly. Others are stated plainly and succinctly, and don't require outside sources to understand their true meaning. We know their plain meaning just by reading them.

Not difficult concepts if one is not obtuse.

The problem is that so much of what you consider self-evident is actually interpretation by you or whatever church traditions you've been influenced by. It might make sense to you that no one was smart enough to see what's plainly obvious until you and Luther came along, but others would question that assumption. I'm not necessarily saying your beliefs are wrong, but anyone should see that they're at least debatable.

I don't disagree that environment influences how we think about things, including scripture. What I do dispute is that church tradition is the lens through which one must look to understand and find meaning in scripture - a position which you (and Doc) seem to hold.

The question should be for those of us seeking the truth in scripture is what does the great weight of scripture convey? Does it contradict the beliefs I've been taught, or that my particular denomination holds? These things can be understood often times by simply reading scripture with an open mind.

Being that the Bible was constructed by the early Church, consecrated over a series of Church Councils and even the Protestants that broke away were trained by the Church wouldn't that be the only way you could truly understand the context?

You said earlier that all Luther had to do was read Romans for himself. I would disagree, as an Augustinian Monk that is ALL he did was read scripture. There was another impetuous that prompted the action he took and another support group that nurtured it. It was not that he was finally allowed to read Romans after 10 years as a priest. There were other outside forces playing into the equation.

You need to read some biographies on Luther. His reading of Romans for the first time is what sparked his conversion.

It is neither here nor there. Whether he had an "Aha!" moment or it came to him over time is debated as his own writings contradict themselves.

I know the Lutheran's like the flash of light and ground shaking the first time he laid eyes on Romans. But, scholars disagree. For one thing, his age and being a new Professor. It would be highly unlikely for someone that new to have the confidence to do what he did. His writings on the first time were in the 1840's and the contradictory writings are from something like 1813 to 1815. But being a scholar he read the Bible quite regularly. Who knows that notion may have stuck with him. It is a debatable item though.

My Wife was Lutheran (WELS), so I have been down the Luther road once or twice. Seems to me it depends on what point they are making. If it is a scriptural point, it is the "AHA!" Romans moment. If it is a Catholic Church corruption point it is John Tetzle. If it is a "we are not worthy" point, it is when he was cleaning and the box of rags story. Or, the God is all powerful is the Lightning bolt story...


To the contrary, it is completely on point. When Luther himself attributed his conversion to reading Romans for himself the first time, that is kind of all you need to know.

I prefer to take the man's words than attribute it to speculative reasons, as you are doing.


Luther and I couldn't have had more different backgrounds. We were born on opposite sides of the planet, roughly 500 years apart. He was baptized the day after he was born and raised in a Roman Catholic family. Ordained to the priesthood, and an Augustinian Friar. On the other hand, I was born into a pagan family. Never had seen or read a Bible until high school. Never darkened the door of a church, VBS, or anything of the sort. My first exposure to Christianity aside from the general cultural knowledge that it was started by a guy named Jesus was reading Romans at age 16...and that is what I attribute my conversion to. I suspect that Luther and I aren't the only two people for whom this happened.
Sam Lowry
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BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

You're picking a fight where there isn't one. The canon is the canon. My question is why.

Catholics believe the Bible is inerrant on matters of faith and morals, not necessarily science, history, etc. (though I believe it's more historically accurate than many realize).

Why won't you, CokeBear, Doc, or Florida answer my question? It was really simple:

When did a writing become the word of God - right as it was being written, or only after it was deemed so by an authority of men?

I think we all know why you guys completely avoided this question.

When it was written, obviously. My question to you is, how do we know it's the word of God? Authorship by an Apostle, though of prime importance, is neither sufficient nor necessary.

So then it's GOD that decides the canon, not man, correct?

And I've already answered your question about the apostles - repeatedly. You really should stop trying to play games.

God decided what was inspired. Men decided what was in the Bible. "Canon" really refers to the latter. It can't mean both the biblical canon and some hypothetical canon.

"Faith in the testimony of the Apostles" doesn't fully answer the question, if only because not all of the canon was written by Apostles. Even if you take what you call their testimony as the sole standard, you still have the problem of determining what that testimony is. Some books of doubtful origin were included, while others were excluded. At some point you're always relying on a judgment.
BusyTarpDuster2017
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Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

You're picking a fight where there isn't one. The canon is the canon. My question is why.

Catholics believe the Bible is inerrant on matters of faith and morals, not necessarily science, history, etc. (though I believe it's more historically accurate than many realize).

Why won't you, CokeBear, Doc, or Florida answer my question? It was really simple:

When did a writing become the word of God - right as it was being written, or only after it was deemed so by an authority of men?

I think we all know why you guys completely avoided this question.

When it was written, obviously. My question to you is, how do we know it's the word of God? Authorship by an Apostle, though of prime importance, is neither sufficient nor necessary.

So then it's GOD that decides the canon, not man, correct?

And I've already answered your question about the apostles - repeatedly. You really should stop trying to play games.

Canon means recognition of scripture, not the process of scripture coming to fruition.

So when did God decide what is and isn't legit scripture? How did he go about that?

There's a reason why I asked the question: when does a writing become the word of God, as it's being written or only after it's recognized by men? What's your answer to this question? I

The questions you're asking are demonstrating a misconception about the canon, and your answer to this question is important in clearing it up. So let's get an answer.
Waco1947
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BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Coke Bear said:

Where does Jesus (or anyone else in the NT) tell us that Mark and Hebrews are considered scripture?

Jesus doesn't say anything about which books are to be "Scripture". Rather, Jesus gives his promise to the apostles, and to no one else, that they would carry his word. Mark is considered to be the recording of Peter's preachings. The church considered Hebrews to have been written by Paul. Paul was sent by Jesus to preach to the world, so it only makes sense that Paul's word was Jesus' word. That is, unless you beliieve Jesus sent Paul to lie to the whole world.

The early Roman Chruch thought it knew who the writers were but scholarship says otherwise. Writngs were attributed to the apostles without know their true source in the early before printing presses, phones, or regular communication. I love the gospels but their orign stories are lost to time..

Doc Holliday
How long do you want to ignore this user?
BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

You're picking a fight where there isn't one. The canon is the canon. My question is why.

Catholics believe the Bible is inerrant on matters of faith and morals, not necessarily science, history, etc. (though I believe it's more historically accurate than many realize).

Why won't you, CokeBear, Doc, or Florida answer my question? It was really simple:

When did a writing become the word of God - right as it was being written, or only after it was deemed so by an authority of men?

I think we all know why you guys completely avoided this question.

When it was written, obviously. My question to you is, how do we know it's the word of God? Authorship by an Apostle, though of prime importance, is neither sufficient nor necessary.

So then it's GOD that decides the canon, not man, correct?

And I've already answered your question about the apostles - repeatedly. You really should stop trying to play games.

Canon means recognition of scripture, not the process of scripture coming to fruition.

So when did God decide what is and isn't legit scripture? How did he go about that?

There's a reason why I asked the question: when does a writing become the word of God, as it's being written or only after it's recognized by men? What's your answer to this question? I

The questions you're asking are demonstrating a misconception about the canon, and your answer to this question is important in clearing it up. So let's get an answer.
When it's written down. That doesn't have anything to do with canon though.

Not even the top reformed Protestant apologists disagree that the early Church recognized what books belong and what books don't. They will gladly tell you that they accept the early Church authority for canon but reject authority for everything else, except the Holy Trinity.

If you're trying to argue that the early Church didn't canonize the New Testament and that you don't agree with their authority, then you're going to lose that argument.
BusyTarpDuster2017
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Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

You're picking a fight where there isn't one. The canon is the canon. My question is why.

Catholics believe the Bible is inerrant on matters of faith and morals, not necessarily science, history, etc. (though I believe it's more historically accurate than many realize).

Why won't you, CokeBear, Doc, or Florida answer my question? It was really simple:

When did a writing become the word of God - right as it was being written, or only after it was deemed so by an authority of men?

I think we all know why you guys completely avoided this question.

When it was written, obviously. My question to you is, how do we know it's the word of God? Authorship by an Apostle, though of prime importance, is neither sufficient nor necessary.

So then it's GOD that decides the canon, not man, correct?

And I've already answered your question about the apostles - repeatedly. You really should stop trying to play games.

God decided what was inspired. Men decided what was in the Bible. "Canon" really refers to the latter. It can't mean both the biblical canon and some hypothetical canon.

"Faith in the testimony of the Apostles" doesn't fully answer the question, if only because not all of the canon was written by Apostles. Even if you take what you call their testimony as the sole standard, you still have the problem of determining what that testimony is. Some books of doubtful origin were included, while others were excluded. At some point you're always relying on a judgment.

If God decided what was his inspired word, and the canon is the writings which are the inspired word of God, then God literally decided the canon. Man's responsibility is only to recognize it and receive it. Therefore, there is no "authority" of man that "decided" the canon. This is an incorrect framing that reflects a misconception of what the canon is and means.

We know we have the original apostles' writings through the first hand witness (NOT "authority") of the first century church. We are relying not on their "judgement", but rather on their actual knowledge as to the authenticity and reliability of the apostolicity of these writings. Writings of questionable authorship today, such as the book of Hebrews, were authored during the time of the first century church (Hebrews was written around 67 AD) so the first century Christians KNEW where these writings came from and they clearly considered them authoritative, strongly suggesting apostolic authorship (e.g. Paul for Hebrews, John for Revelation). And since we know the first century church has given us the witness to the actual words of the apostles, and we believe the word of the apostles, then we believe their word that these were Jesus' actual words:

"the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, he will teach you [the apostles] all things and bring to your remembrance all that I have said to you." - Jesus, in John 14:26

"As you sent me into the world, so I have sent them into the world... I do not ask for these only, but also for those who will believe in me through their word" - Jesus, in John 17:18,20


This means the word of the apostles to the church was the inspired word of God for his church, i.e. the canon. It all starts at the beginning with our faith in Jesus Christ through the word of the apostles. The canon reveals itself from there.

BusyTarpDuster2017
How long do you want to ignore this user?
Waco1947 said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Coke Bear said:

Where does Jesus (or anyone else in the NT) tell us that Mark and Hebrews are considered scripture?

Jesus doesn't say anything about which books are to be "Scripture". Rather, Jesus gives his promise to the apostles, and to no one else, that they would carry his word. Mark is considered to be the recording of Peter's preachings. The church considered Hebrews to have been written by Paul. Paul was sent by Jesus to preach to the world, so it only makes sense that Paul's word was Jesus' word. That is, unless you beliieve Jesus sent Paul to lie to the whole world.

The early Roman Chruch thought it knew who the writers were but scholarship says otherwise. Writngs were attributed to the apostles without know their true source in the early before printing presses, phones, or regular communication. I love the gospels but their orign stories are lost to time..



From the guy that said Sam had "great insight".

I'm not sure I can make a better argument.
BusyTarpDuster2017
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Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

You're picking a fight where there isn't one. The canon is the canon. My question is why.

Catholics believe the Bible is inerrant on matters of faith and morals, not necessarily science, history, etc. (though I believe it's more historically accurate than many realize).

Why won't you, CokeBear, Doc, or Florida answer my question? It was really simple:

When did a writing become the word of God - right as it was being written, or only after it was deemed so by an authority of men?

I think we all know why you guys completely avoided this question.

When it was written, obviously. My question to you is, how do we know it's the word of God? Authorship by an Apostle, though of prime importance, is neither sufficient nor necessary.

So then it's GOD that decides the canon, not man, correct?

And I've already answered your question about the apostles - repeatedly. You really should stop trying to play games.

Canon means recognition of scripture, not the process of scripture coming to fruition.

So when did God decide what is and isn't legit scripture? How did he go about that?

There's a reason why I asked the question: when does a writing become the word of God, as it's being written or only after it's recognized by men? What's your answer to this question? I

The questions you're asking are demonstrating a misconception about the canon, and your answer to this question is important in clearing it up. So let's get an answer.

When it's written down. That doesn't have anything to do with canon though.



It has everything to do with the canon. It means that it's GOD that decides on and gives the canon, NOT man. This is your misconception. Man does not have "authority" to "decide" the canon. The canon exists before man recognizes it or knows it's there. Their responsibility is to recognize it correctly, and receive it.
Doc Holliday
How long do you want to ignore this user?
BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

You're picking a fight where there isn't one. The canon is the canon. My question is why.

Catholics believe the Bible is inerrant on matters of faith and morals, not necessarily science, history, etc. (though I believe it's more historically accurate than many realize).

Why won't you, CokeBear, Doc, or Florida answer my question? It was really simple:

When did a writing become the word of God - right as it was being written, or only after it was deemed so by an authority of men?

I think we all know why you guys completely avoided this question.

When it was written, obviously. My question to you is, how do we know it's the word of God? Authorship by an Apostle, though of prime importance, is neither sufficient nor necessary.

So then it's GOD that decides the canon, not man, correct?

And I've already answered your question about the apostles - repeatedly. You really should stop trying to play games.

Canon means recognition of scripture, not the process of scripture coming to fruition.

So when did God decide what is and isn't legit scripture? How did he go about that?

There's a reason why I asked the question: when does a writing become the word of God, as it's being written or only after it's recognized by men? What's your answer to this question? I

The questions you're asking are demonstrating a misconception about the canon, and your answer to this question is important in clearing it up. So let's get an answer.

When it's written down. That doesn't have anything to do with canon though.


Their responsibility is to recognize it correctly, and receive it.
Yes that's all that canonization means, recognizing what scripture comes from God. You'e just stating that God knows what scripture comes from Him as if that knowledge was written down and given to us, which it wasn't.

There were Christians pushing gnostic scripture early on. They thought it came from God, but they were wrong.
The Church debated on whether Hebrews, James and Revelation were legit or not. Many Christians said no.
If no authoritative judgment took place, then no one could say the gnostics were wrong or that Hebrews and Revelation belong in Scripture. But Christians do say that because the early Church settled the matter on the basis of apostolic authority.

The New Testament you use was recognized by the same Church you claim has no authority. There's no way around this. The moment you admit that some Christians were wrong and the Church had to resolve the dispute, you've already conceded authoritative canonization.
Doc Holliday
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BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

You're picking a fight where there isn't one. The canon is the canon. My question is why.

Catholics believe the Bible is inerrant on matters of faith and morals, not necessarily science, history, etc. (though I believe it's more historically accurate than many realize).

Why won't you, CokeBear, Doc, or Florida answer my question? It was really simple:

When did a writing become the word of God - right as it was being written, or only after it was deemed so by an authority of men?

I think we all know why you guys completely avoided this question.

When it was written, obviously. My question to you is, how do we know it's the word of God? Authorship by an Apostle, though of prime importance, is neither sufficient nor necessary.

So then it's GOD that decides the canon, not man, correct?

And I've already answered your question about the apostles - repeatedly. You really should stop trying to play games.

God decided what was inspired. Men decided what was in the Bible. "Canon" really refers to the latter. It can't mean both the biblical canon and some hypothetical canon.

"Faith in the testimony of the Apostles" doesn't fully answer the question, if only because not all of the canon was written by Apostles. Even if you take what you call their testimony as the sole standard, you still have the problem of determining what that testimony is. Some books of doubtful origin were included, while others were excluded. At some point you're always relying on a judgment.

If God decided what was his inspired word, and the canon is the writings which are the inspired word of God, then God literally decided the canon. Man's responsibility is only to recognize it and receive it. Therefore, there is no "authority" of man that "decided" the canon. This is an incorrect framing that reflects a misconception of what the canon is and means.

We know we have the original apostles' writings through the first hand witness (NOT "authority") of the first century church. We are relying not on their "judgement", but rather on their actual knowledge as to the authenticity and reliability of the apostolicity of these writings. Writings of questionable authorship today, such as the book of Hebrews, were authored during the time of the first century church (Hebrews was written around 67 AD) so the first century Christians KNEW where these writings came from and they clearly considered them authoritative, strongly suggesting apostolic authorship (e.g. Paul for Hebrews, John for Revelation). And since we know the first century church has given us the witness to the actual words of the apostles, and we believe the word of the apostles, then we believe their word that these were Jesus' actual words:

"the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, he will teach you [the apostles] all things and bring to your remembrance all that I have said to you." - Jesus, in John 14:26

"As you sent me into the world, so I have sent them into the world... I do not ask for these only, but also for those who will believe in me through their word" - Jesus, in John 17:18,20


This means the word of the apostles to the church was the inspired word of God for his church, i.e. the canon. It all starts at the beginning with our faith in Jesus Christ through the word of the apostles. The canon reveals itself from there.


Ok I see why you're not making sense. This is just historically false.

If first century Christians actually knew with certainty which writings were apostolic, there would not have been centuries long disputes over Hebrews, James, 2 Peter, Jude, and Revelation, nor persistent regional disagreement between the Eastern and Western churches, nor major Church Fathers rejecting books that other Fathers accepted, nor a closed New Testament canon only emerging through ecclesial consensus in the late fourth century.

You said: "Hebrews was written around 67 AD) so the first century Christians KNEW where these writings came from"
That's not accurate whatsoever. The early Church did not know who wrote Hebrews, explicitly debated its authorship, and ultimately accepted it despite that uncertainty through ecclesial discernment.
"Facts are stubborn things; and whatever may be our wishes, our inclinations, or the dictates of our passions, they cannot alter the state of facts and evidence." ~ John Adams
BusyTarpDuster2017
How long do you want to ignore this user?
Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

You're picking a fight where there isn't one. The canon is the canon. My question is why.

Catholics believe the Bible is inerrant on matters of faith and morals, not necessarily science, history, etc. (though I believe it's more historically accurate than many realize).

Why won't you, CokeBear, Doc, or Florida answer my question? It was really simple:

When did a writing become the word of God - right as it was being written, or only after it was deemed so by an authority of men?

I think we all know why you guys completely avoided this question.

When it was written, obviously. My question to you is, how do we know it's the word of God? Authorship by an Apostle, though of prime importance, is neither sufficient nor necessary.

So then it's GOD that decides the canon, not man, correct?

And I've already answered your question about the apostles - repeatedly. You really should stop trying to play games.

Canon means recognition of scripture, not the process of scripture coming to fruition.

So when did God decide what is and isn't legit scripture? How did he go about that?

There's a reason why I asked the question: when does a writing become the word of God, as it's being written or only after it's recognized by men? What's your answer to this question? I

The questions you're asking are demonstrating a misconception about the canon, and your answer to this question is important in clearing it up. So let's get an answer.

When it's written down. That doesn't have anything to do with canon though.



Their responsibility is to recognize it correctly, and receive it.

Yes that's all that canonization means, recognizing what scripture comes from God. You'e just stating that God knows what scripture comes from Him as if that knowledge was written down and given to us, which it wasn't.

There were Christians pushing gnostic scripture early on. They thought it came from God, but they were wrong.
The Church debated on whether Hebrews, James and Revelation were legit or not. Many Christians said no.
If no authoritative judgment took place, then no one could say the gnostics were wrong or that Hebrews and Revelation belong in Scripture. But Christians do say that because the early Church settled the matter on the basis of apostolic authority.

The New Testament you use was recognized by the same Church you claim has no authority. There's no way around this. The moment you admit that some Christians were wrong and the Church had to resolve the dispute, you've already conceded authoritative canonization.

"Canonization" is an ecclesial act of man, who being fallible, may or may not correctly recognize the true canon, which is from God. We both agree that God's word is his word the moment it's written, NOT when it's declared to be so by man. You're not being honest with the implications of this. It clearly means that man does not have the "authority" to determine canon, only the responsibility to recognize and receive it. It is God that is the authority behind the canon. Let's start there - do you agree with this?
Sam Lowry
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BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

You're picking a fight where there isn't one. The canon is the canon. My question is why.

Catholics believe the Bible is inerrant on matters of faith and morals, not necessarily science, history, etc. (though I believe it's more historically accurate than many realize).

Why won't you, CokeBear, Doc, or Florida answer my question? It was really simple:

When did a writing become the word of God - right as it was being written, or only after it was deemed so by an authority of men?

I think we all know why you guys completely avoided this question.

When it was written, obviously. My question to you is, how do we know it's the word of God? Authorship by an Apostle, though of prime importance, is neither sufficient nor necessary.

So then it's GOD that decides the canon, not man, correct?

And I've already answered your question about the apostles - repeatedly. You really should stop trying to play games.

Canon means recognition of scripture, not the process of scripture coming to fruition.

So when did God decide what is and isn't legit scripture? How did he go about that?

There's a reason why I asked the question: when does a writing become the word of God, as it's being written or only after it's recognized by men? What's your answer to this question? I

The questions you're asking are demonstrating a misconception about the canon, and your answer to this question is important in clearing it up. So let's get an answer.

When it's written down. That doesn't have anything to do with canon though.



Their responsibility is to recognize it correctly, and receive it.

Yes that's all that canonization means, recognizing what scripture comes from God. You'e just stating that God knows what scripture comes from Him as if that knowledge was written down and given to us, which it wasn't.

There were Christians pushing gnostic scripture early on. They thought it came from God, but they were wrong.
The Church debated on whether Hebrews, James and Revelation were legit or not. Many Christians said no.
If no authoritative judgment took place, then no one could say the gnostics were wrong or that Hebrews and Revelation belong in Scripture. But Christians do say that because the early Church settled the matter on the basis of apostolic authority.

The New Testament you use was recognized by the same Church you claim has no authority. There's no way around this. The moment you admit that some Christians were wrong and the Church had to resolve the dispute, you've already conceded authoritative canonization.

"Canonization" is an ecclesial act of man, who being fallible, may or may not correctly recognize the true canon, which is from God. We both agree that God's word is his word the moment it's written, NOT when it's declared to be so by man. You're not being honest with the implications of this. It clearly means that man does not have the "authority" to determine canon, only the responsibility to recognize and receive it. It is God that is the authority behind the canon. Let's start there - do you agree with this?

It would help if you'd choose a definition of "canon" and stick to it.
BusyTarpDuster2017
How long do you want to ignore this user?
Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

You're picking a fight where there isn't one. The canon is the canon. My question is why.

Catholics believe the Bible is inerrant on matters of faith and morals, not necessarily science, history, etc. (though I believe it's more historically accurate than many realize).

Why won't you, CokeBear, Doc, or Florida answer my question? It was really simple:

When did a writing become the word of God - right as it was being written, or only after it was deemed so by an authority of men?

I think we all know why you guys completely avoided this question.

When it was written, obviously. My question to you is, how do we know it's the word of God? Authorship by an Apostle, though of prime importance, is neither sufficient nor necessary.

So then it's GOD that decides the canon, not man, correct?

And I've already answered your question about the apostles - repeatedly. You really should stop trying to play games.

God decided what was inspired. Men decided what was in the Bible. "Canon" really refers to the latter. It can't mean both the biblical canon and some hypothetical canon.

"Faith in the testimony of the Apostles" doesn't fully answer the question, if only because not all of the canon was written by Apostles. Even if you take what you call their testimony as the sole standard, you still have the problem of determining what that testimony is. Some books of doubtful origin were included, while others were excluded. At some point you're always relying on a judgment.

If God decided what was his inspired word, and the canon is the writings which are the inspired word of God, then God literally decided the canon. Man's responsibility is only to recognize it and receive it. Therefore, there is no "authority" of man that "decided" the canon. This is an incorrect framing that reflects a misconception of what the canon is and means.

We know we have the original apostles' writings through the first hand witness (NOT "authority") of the first century church. We are relying not on their "judgement", but rather on their actual knowledge as to the authenticity and reliability of the apostolicity of these writings. Writings of questionable authorship today, such as the book of Hebrews, were authored during the time of the first century church (Hebrews was written around 67 AD) so the first century Christians KNEW where these writings came from and they clearly considered them authoritative, strongly suggesting apostolic authorship (e.g. Paul for Hebrews, John for Revelation). And since we know the first century church has given us the witness to the actual words of the apostles, and we believe the word of the apostles, then we believe their word that these were Jesus' actual words:

"the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, he will teach you [the apostles] all things and bring to your remembrance all that I have said to you." - Jesus, in John 14:26

"As you sent me into the world, so I have sent them into the world... I do not ask for these only, but also for those who will believe in me through their word" - Jesus, in John 17:18,20


This means the word of the apostles to the church was the inspired word of God for his church, i.e. the canon. It all starts at the beginning with our faith in Jesus Christ through the word of the apostles. The canon reveals itself from there.



Ok I see why you're not making sense. This is just historically false.

If first century Christians actually knew with certainty which writings were apostolic, there would not have been centuries long disputes over Hebrews, James, 2 Peter, Jude, and Revelation, nor persistent regional disagreement between the Eastern and Western churches, nor major Church Fathers rejecting books that other Fathers accepted, nor a closed New Testament canon only emerging through ecclesial consensus in the late fourth century.

You said: "Hebrews was written around 67 AD) so the first century Christians KNEW where these writings came from"
That's not accurate whatsoever. The early Church did not know who wrote Hebrews, explicitly debated its authorship, and ultimately accepted it despite that uncertainty through ecclesial discernment.

Dispute over the authorship of Hebrews began in the late second century into the third century. There is no evidence from the first century that the authorship was disputed. What we DO know, is that it was circulated and preserved among the first century Christians. This strongly suggests its apostolicity or at least an authority level that the first Christians were able to authenticate for themselves, being that they were direct eyewitnesses to everything. The fact that certain books were disputed a century or more later, is not an indication that the earliest church had absolutely no idea where the book of Hebrews came from, as if it just dropped out of the sky.

Here's the question, though, tying it to the previous point - did Hebrews become the word of God because a council of men said so.... or because GOD said so, and used his Holy Spirit to guide his church to recognize and receive it? You've already kinda answered this, but it's worth reminding you of this point, because it should disavow you of any notion that it was by the authority of man that we have the book of Hebrews in the canon.
BusyTarpDuster2017
How long do you want to ignore this user?
Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

You're picking a fight where there isn't one. The canon is the canon. My question is why.

Catholics believe the Bible is inerrant on matters of faith and morals, not necessarily science, history, etc. (though I believe it's more historically accurate than many realize).

Why won't you, CokeBear, Doc, or Florida answer my question? It was really simple:

When did a writing become the word of God - right as it was being written, or only after it was deemed so by an authority of men?

I think we all know why you guys completely avoided this question.

When it was written, obviously. My question to you is, how do we know it's the word of God? Authorship by an Apostle, though of prime importance, is neither sufficient nor necessary.

So then it's GOD that decides the canon, not man, correct?

And I've already answered your question about the apostles - repeatedly. You really should stop trying to play games.

Canon means recognition of scripture, not the process of scripture coming to fruition.

So when did God decide what is and isn't legit scripture? How did he go about that?

There's a reason why I asked the question: when does a writing become the word of God, as it's being written or only after it's recognized by men? What's your answer to this question? I

The questions you're asking are demonstrating a misconception about the canon, and your answer to this question is important in clearing it up. So let's get an answer.

When it's written down. That doesn't have anything to do with canon though.



Their responsibility is to recognize it correctly, and receive it.

Yes that's all that canonization means, recognizing what scripture comes from God. You'e just stating that God knows what scripture comes from Him as if that knowledge was written down and given to us, which it wasn't.

There were Christians pushing gnostic scripture early on. They thought it came from God, but they were wrong.
The Church debated on whether Hebrews, James and Revelation were legit or not. Many Christians said no.
If no authoritative judgment took place, then no one could say the gnostics were wrong or that Hebrews and Revelation belong in Scripture. But Christians do say that because the early Church settled the matter on the basis of apostolic authority.

The New Testament you use was recognized by the same Church you claim has no authority. There's no way around this. The moment you admit that some Christians were wrong and the Church had to resolve the dispute, you've already conceded authoritative canonization.

"Canonization" is an ecclesial act of man, who being fallible, may or may not correctly recognize the true canon, which is from God. We both agree that God's word is his word the moment it's written, NOT when it's declared to be so by man. You're not being honest with the implications of this. It clearly means that man does not have the "authority" to determine canon, only the responsibility to recognize and receive it. It is God that is the authority behind the canon. Let's start there - do you agree with this?

It would help if you'd choose a definition of "canon" and stick to it.

Good lord - mirror, please. You guys are the ones moving the goal posts.
Sam Lowry
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BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

You're picking a fight where there isn't one. The canon is the canon. My question is why.

Catholics believe the Bible is inerrant on matters of faith and morals, not necessarily science, history, etc. (though I believe it's more historically accurate than many realize).

Why won't you, CokeBear, Doc, or Florida answer my question? It was really simple:

When did a writing become the word of God - right as it was being written, or only after it was deemed so by an authority of men?

I think we all know why you guys completely avoided this question.

When it was written, obviously. My question to you is, how do we know it's the word of God? Authorship by an Apostle, though of prime importance, is neither sufficient nor necessary.

So then it's GOD that decides the canon, not man, correct?

And I've already answered your question about the apostles - repeatedly. You really should stop trying to play games.

God decided what was inspired. Men decided what was in the Bible. "Canon" really refers to the latter. It can't mean both the biblical canon and some hypothetical canon.

"Faith in the testimony of the Apostles" doesn't fully answer the question, if only because not all of the canon was written by Apostles. Even if you take what you call their testimony as the sole standard, you still have the problem of determining what that testimony is. Some books of doubtful origin were included, while others were excluded. At some point you're always relying on a judgment.

If God decided what was his inspired word, and the canon is the writings which are the inspired word of God, then God literally decided the canon. Man's responsibility is only to recognize it and receive it. Therefore, there is no "authority" of man that "decided" the canon. This is an incorrect framing that reflects a misconception of what the canon is and means.

We know we have the original apostles' writings through the first hand witness (NOT "authority") of the first century church. We are relying not on their "judgement", but rather on their actual knowledge as to the authenticity and reliability of the apostolicity of these writings. Writings of questionable authorship today, such as the book of Hebrews, were authored during the time of the first century church (Hebrews was written around 67 AD) so the first century Christians KNEW where these writings came from and they clearly considered them authoritative, strongly suggesting apostolic authorship (e.g. Paul for Hebrews, John for Revelation). And since we know the first century church has given us the witness to the actual words of the apostles, and we believe the word of the apostles, then we believe their word that these were Jesus' actual words:

"the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, he will teach you [the apostles] all things and bring to your remembrance all that I have said to you." - Jesus, in John 14:26

"As you sent me into the world, so I have sent them into the world... I do not ask for these only, but also for those who will believe in me through their word" - Jesus, in John 17:18,20


This means the word of the apostles to the church was the inspired word of God for his church, i.e. the canon. It all starts at the beginning with our faith in Jesus Christ through the word of the apostles. The canon reveals itself from there.



Ok I see why you're not making sense. This is just historically false.

If first century Christians actually knew with certainty which writings were apostolic, there would not have been centuries long disputes over Hebrews, James, 2 Peter, Jude, and Revelation, nor persistent regional disagreement between the Eastern and Western churches, nor major Church Fathers rejecting books that other Fathers accepted, nor a closed New Testament canon only emerging through ecclesial consensus in the late fourth century.

You said: "Hebrews was written around 67 AD) so the first century Christians KNEW where these writings came from"
That's not accurate whatsoever. The early Church did not know who wrote Hebrews, explicitly debated its authorship, and ultimately accepted it despite that uncertainty through ecclesial discernment.

Here's the question, though, tying it to the previous point - did Hebrews become the word of God because a council of men said so.... or because GOD said so, and used his Holy Spirit to guide his church to recognize and receive it? You've already kinda answered this, but it's worth reminding you of this point, because it should disavow you of any notion that it was by the authority of man that we have the book of Hebrews in the canon.

Well, that really depends on what you mean by "the canon."
BusyTarpDuster2017
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Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

You're picking a fight where there isn't one. The canon is the canon. My question is why.

Catholics believe the Bible is inerrant on matters of faith and morals, not necessarily science, history, etc. (though I believe it's more historically accurate than many realize).

Why won't you, CokeBear, Doc, or Florida answer my question? It was really simple:

When did a writing become the word of God - right as it was being written, or only after it was deemed so by an authority of men?

I think we all know why you guys completely avoided this question.

When it was written, obviously. My question to you is, how do we know it's the word of God? Authorship by an Apostle, though of prime importance, is neither sufficient nor necessary.

So then it's GOD that decides the canon, not man, correct?

And I've already answered your question about the apostles - repeatedly. You really should stop trying to play games.

God decided what was inspired. Men decided what was in the Bible. "Canon" really refers to the latter. It can't mean both the biblical canon and some hypothetical canon.

"Faith in the testimony of the Apostles" doesn't fully answer the question, if only because not all of the canon was written by Apostles. Even if you take what you call their testimony as the sole standard, you still have the problem of determining what that testimony is. Some books of doubtful origin were included, while others were excluded. At some point you're always relying on a judgment.

If God decided what was his inspired word, and the canon is the writings which are the inspired word of God, then God literally decided the canon. Man's responsibility is only to recognize it and receive it. Therefore, there is no "authority" of man that "decided" the canon. This is an incorrect framing that reflects a misconception of what the canon is and means.

We know we have the original apostles' writings through the first hand witness (NOT "authority") of the first century church. We are relying not on their "judgement", but rather on their actual knowledge as to the authenticity and reliability of the apostolicity of these writings. Writings of questionable authorship today, such as the book of Hebrews, were authored during the time of the first century church (Hebrews was written around 67 AD) so the first century Christians KNEW where these writings came from and they clearly considered them authoritative, strongly suggesting apostolic authorship (e.g. Paul for Hebrews, John for Revelation). And since we know the first century church has given us the witness to the actual words of the apostles, and we believe the word of the apostles, then we believe their word that these were Jesus' actual words:

"the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, he will teach you [the apostles] all things and bring to your remembrance all that I have said to you." - Jesus, in John 14:26

"As you sent me into the world, so I have sent them into the world... I do not ask for these only, but also for those who will believe in me through their word" - Jesus, in John 17:18,20


This means the word of the apostles to the church was the inspired word of God for his church, i.e. the canon. It all starts at the beginning with our faith in Jesus Christ through the word of the apostles. The canon reveals itself from there.



Ok I see why you're not making sense. This is just historically false.

If first century Christians actually knew with certainty which writings were apostolic, there would not have been centuries long disputes over Hebrews, James, 2 Peter, Jude, and Revelation, nor persistent regional disagreement between the Eastern and Western churches, nor major Church Fathers rejecting books that other Fathers accepted, nor a closed New Testament canon only emerging through ecclesial consensus in the late fourth century.

You said: "Hebrews was written around 67 AD) so the first century Christians KNEW where these writings came from"
That's not accurate whatsoever. The early Church did not know who wrote Hebrews, explicitly debated its authorship, and ultimately accepted it despite that uncertainty through ecclesial discernment.

Here's the question, though, tying it to the previous point - did Hebrews become the word of God because a council of men said so.... or because GOD said so, and used his Holy Spirit to guide his church to recognize and receive it? You've already kinda answered this, but it's worth reminding you of this point, because it should disavow you of any notion that it was by the authority of man that we have the book of Hebrews in the canon.

Well, that really depends on what you mean by "the canon."

You mean it depends on what you mean by "the canon".
Sam Lowry
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BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

You're picking a fight where there isn't one. The canon is the canon. My question is why.

Catholics believe the Bible is inerrant on matters of faith and morals, not necessarily science, history, etc. (though I believe it's more historically accurate than many realize).

Why won't you, CokeBear, Doc, or Florida answer my question? It was really simple:

When did a writing become the word of God - right as it was being written, or only after it was deemed so by an authority of men?

I think we all know why you guys completely avoided this question.

When it was written, obviously. My question to you is, how do we know it's the word of God? Authorship by an Apostle, though of prime importance, is neither sufficient nor necessary.

So then it's GOD that decides the canon, not man, correct?

And I've already answered your question about the apostles - repeatedly. You really should stop trying to play games.

God decided what was inspired. Men decided what was in the Bible. "Canon" really refers to the latter. It can't mean both the biblical canon and some hypothetical canon.

"Faith in the testimony of the Apostles" doesn't fully answer the question, if only because not all of the canon was written by Apostles. Even if you take what you call their testimony as the sole standard, you still have the problem of determining what that testimony is. Some books of doubtful origin were included, while others were excluded. At some point you're always relying on a judgment.

If God decided what was his inspired word, and the canon is the writings which are the inspired word of God, then God literally decided the canon. Man's responsibility is only to recognize it and receive it. Therefore, there is no "authority" of man that "decided" the canon. This is an incorrect framing that reflects a misconception of what the canon is and means.

We know we have the original apostles' writings through the first hand witness (NOT "authority") of the first century church. We are relying not on their "judgement", but rather on their actual knowledge as to the authenticity and reliability of the apostolicity of these writings. Writings of questionable authorship today, such as the book of Hebrews, were authored during the time of the first century church (Hebrews was written around 67 AD) so the first century Christians KNEW where these writings came from and they clearly considered them authoritative, strongly suggesting apostolic authorship (e.g. Paul for Hebrews, John for Revelation). And since we know the first century church has given us the witness to the actual words of the apostles, and we believe the word of the apostles, then we believe their word that these were Jesus' actual words:

"the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, he will teach you [the apostles] all things and bring to your remembrance all that I have said to you." - Jesus, in John 14:26

"As you sent me into the world, so I have sent them into the world... I do not ask for these only, but also for those who will believe in me through their word" - Jesus, in John 17:18,20


This means the word of the apostles to the church was the inspired word of God for his church, i.e. the canon. It all starts at the beginning with our faith in Jesus Christ through the word of the apostles. The canon reveals itself from there.



Ok I see why you're not making sense. This is just historically false.

If first century Christians actually knew with certainty which writings were apostolic, there would not have been centuries long disputes over Hebrews, James, 2 Peter, Jude, and Revelation, nor persistent regional disagreement between the Eastern and Western churches, nor major Church Fathers rejecting books that other Fathers accepted, nor a closed New Testament canon only emerging through ecclesial consensus in the late fourth century.

You said: "Hebrews was written around 67 AD) so the first century Christians KNEW where these writings came from"
That's not accurate whatsoever. The early Church did not know who wrote Hebrews, explicitly debated its authorship, and ultimately accepted it despite that uncertainty through ecclesial discernment.

Here's the question, though, tying it to the previous point - did Hebrews become the word of God because a council of men said so.... or because GOD said so, and used his Holy Spirit to guide his church to recognize and receive it? You've already kinda answered this, but it's worth reminding you of this point, because it should disavow you of any notion that it was by the authority of man that we have the book of Hebrews in the canon.

Well, that really depends on what you mean by "the canon."

You mean it depends on what you mean by "the canon".

I mean the recognized biblical canon. Did Hebrews become a book of the Bible the moment it was written, or because a council of men said so?
Doc Holliday
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BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

You're picking a fight where there isn't one. The canon is the canon. My question is why.

Catholics believe the Bible is inerrant on matters of faith and morals, not necessarily science, history, etc. (though I believe it's more historically accurate than many realize).

Why won't you, CokeBear, Doc, or Florida answer my question? It was really simple:

When did a writing become the word of God - right as it was being written, or only after it was deemed so by an authority of men?

I think we all know why you guys completely avoided this question.

When it was written, obviously. My question to you is, how do we know it's the word of God? Authorship by an Apostle, though of prime importance, is neither sufficient nor necessary.

So then it's GOD that decides the canon, not man, correct?

And I've already answered your question about the apostles - repeatedly. You really should stop trying to play games.

Canon means recognition of scripture, not the process of scripture coming to fruition.

So when did God decide what is and isn't legit scripture? How did he go about that?

There's a reason why I asked the question: when does a writing become the word of God, as it's being written or only after it's recognized by men? What's your answer to this question? I

The questions you're asking are demonstrating a misconception about the canon, and your answer to this question is important in clearing it up. So let's get an answer.

When it's written down. That doesn't have anything to do with canon though.



Their responsibility is to recognize it correctly, and receive it.

Yes that's all that canonization means, recognizing what scripture comes from God. You'e just stating that God knows what scripture comes from Him as if that knowledge was written down and given to us, which it wasn't.

There were Christians pushing gnostic scripture early on. They thought it came from God, but they were wrong.
The Church debated on whether Hebrews, James and Revelation were legit or not. Many Christians said no.
If no authoritative judgment took place, then no one could say the gnostics were wrong or that Hebrews and Revelation belong in Scripture. But Christians do say that because the early Church settled the matter on the basis of apostolic authority.

The New Testament you use was recognized by the same Church you claim has no authority. There's no way around this. The moment you admit that some Christians were wrong and the Church had to resolve the dispute, you've already conceded authoritative canonization.

"Canonization" is an ecclesial act of man, who being fallible, may or may not correctly recognize the true canon, which is from God. We both agree that God's word is his word the moment it's written, NOT when it's declared to be so by man. You're not being honest with the implications of this. It clearly means that man does not have the "authority" to determine canon, only the responsibility to recognize and receive it. It is God that is the authority behind the canon. Let's start there - do you agree with this?
You can't move from "this happened" to "this must be binding" without a normative authority to bridge the gap.

We're talking solely about a book's status as being inspired by God.

You're moving from a descriptive claim about what happened (God's word when written) to a normative claim about what must be accepted, without explaining what bridges that gap.
Mothra
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Realitybites said:

Mothra said:

FLBear5630 said:

Mothra said:

FLBear5630 said:

Mothra said:

Sam Lowry said:

Mothra said:

Sam Lowry said:

Mothra said:

Doc Holliday said:

Scripture does not interpret itself. Without a singular, visible, and continuous teaching authority (the Church) Christianity inevitably fragments and begins absorbing secular moral frameworks. This isn't speculative…it's observable. Once doctrinal authority became decentralized, moral authority soon follows. The result is what we see today: denominations and even individual congregations affirming abortion, woke ideology, redefining righteousness along cultural lines, and preaching assurance of salvation in ways that collapse into practical antinomianism.

This is not an accidental byproduct, it's a structural consequence. If no final authority exists to definitively say "this is the apostolic faith and this is not," then disagreement has no principled stopping point. Interpretation becomes governed not by tradition but by preference, culture, and institutional survival.

Christianity did not function this way in the past. For the first millennium, doctrine was guarded by the Church as a unified body: conciliar, sacramental, and hierarchical. The rupture in 1054 was not a cultural or political dispute; it marked a fundamental challenge to how authority itself was understood and exercised. Once that challenge was normalized, further fragmentation became inevitable.

The Protestant reformers repeated this pattern in a more radical form. Rejecting both Rome and the early conciliar Church, authority was relocated from the historical Church into the judgment of the individual or local community. In practice, this produced not freedom but a multiplication of competing "final authorities," each functionally operating as its own pope, without the apostolic continuity or corrective mechanisms that historically restrained doctrinal drift.

By contrast, the claim of the Orthodox Church is not that bishops are infallible individuals, but that the Church as a whole, guided by the Holy Spirit and preserved through apostolic succession, serves as the living interpreter of Scripture. Scripture belongs to the Church, not the other way around.

Once that principle is abandoned, Christianity doesn't remain neutral. It doesn't simply "stick to the Bible." It slowly conforms to the moral assumptions of the surrounding culture. The present state of doctrinal and moral confusion across much of Western Christianity is not a mystery, it's the predictable outcome of rejecting a singular, historical authority in favor of interpretive autonomy.

ChatGPT hogwash. It took Martin Luther merely reading Romans for the first time to begin the reformation. He went against the great weight of tradition and Catholic teaching in reaching his conclusions, simply because he read Romans for himself. The idea that all scripture requires some historical or traditional context to understand it is just pure nonsense. We don't need "His Imminence" to explain salvation.

How to talk about interpretation with someone who doesn't know they're interpreting? It's just amazing.

Looks like you and I are using the term "interpretation" very differently. If by interpretation, you are generally (and broadly) referring to someone's understanding of the meaning of text, sure, we all "interpret." But as as you of course well know, I was using that term much more narrowly (and appropriately in this context) to refer to passages of scripture that are difficult to comprehend, and therefore may require reference to either other passages, elders, or theologians to decipher.

In other words, there are some passages of scripture that are difficult to comprehend, undoubtedly. Others are stated plainly and succinctly, and don't require outside sources to understand their true meaning. We know their plain meaning just by reading them.

Not difficult concepts if one is not obtuse.

The problem is that so much of what you consider self-evident is actually interpretation by you or whatever church traditions you've been influenced by. It might make sense to you that no one was smart enough to see what's plainly obvious until you and Luther came along, but others would question that assumption. I'm not necessarily saying your beliefs are wrong, but anyone should see that they're at least debatable.

I don't disagree that environment influences how we think about things, including scripture. What I do dispute is that church tradition is the lens through which one must look to understand and find meaning in scripture - a position which you (and Doc) seem to hold.

The question should be for those of us seeking the truth in scripture is what does the great weight of scripture convey? Does it contradict the beliefs I've been taught, or that my particular denomination holds? These things can be understood often times by simply reading scripture with an open mind.

Being that the Bible was constructed by the early Church, consecrated over a series of Church Councils and even the Protestants that broke away were trained by the Church wouldn't that be the only way you could truly understand the context?

You said earlier that all Luther had to do was read Romans for himself. I would disagree, as an Augustinian Monk that is ALL he did was read scripture. There was another impetuous that prompted the action he took and another support group that nurtured it. It was not that he was finally allowed to read Romans after 10 years as a priest. There were other outside forces playing into the equation.

You need to read some biographies on Luther. His reading of Romans for the first time is what sparked his conversion.

It is neither here nor there. Whether he had an "Aha!" moment or it came to him over time is debated as his own writings contradict themselves.

I know the Lutheran's like the flash of light and ground shaking the first time he laid eyes on Romans. But, scholars disagree. For one thing, his age and being a new Professor. It would be highly unlikely for someone that new to have the confidence to do what he did. His writings on the first time were in the 1840's and the contradictory writings are from something like 1813 to 1815. But being a scholar he read the Bible quite regularly. Who knows that notion may have stuck with him. It is a debatable item though.

My Wife was Lutheran (WELS), so I have been down the Luther road once or twice. Seems to me it depends on what point they are making. If it is a scriptural point, it is the "AHA!" Romans moment. If it is a Catholic Church corruption point it is John Tetzle. If it is a "we are not worthy" point, it is when he was cleaning and the box of rags story. Or, the God is all powerful is the Lightning bolt story...


To the contrary, it is completely on point. When Luther himself attributed his conversion to reading Romans for himself the first time, that is kind of all you need to know.

I prefer to take the man's words than attribute it to speculative reasons, as you are doing.


Luther and I couldn't have had more different backgrounds. We were born on opposite sides of the planet, roughly 500 years apart. He was baptized the day after he was born and raised in a Roman Catholic family. Ordained to the priesthood, and an Augustinian Friar. On the other hand, I was born into a pagan family. Never had seen or read a Bible until high school. Never darkened the door of a church, VBS, or anything of the sort. My first exposure to Christianity aside from the general cultural knowledge that it was started by a guy named Jesus was reading Romans at age 16...and that is what I attribute my conversion to. I suspect that Luther and I aren't the only two people for whom this happened.



Amen. Thanks for sharing.
Waco1947
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It means that it's GOD that decides on and gives the canon, NOT man. This is your misconception. Man does not have the "authority" to "decide" the canon. The canon exists before man recognizes it or knows it's there. Their responsibility is to recognize it correctly and receive it. ......How do you know this?

BusyTarpDuster2017
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Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

You're picking a fight where there isn't one. The canon is the canon. My question is why.

Catholics believe the Bible is inerrant on matters of faith and morals, not necessarily science, history, etc. (though I believe it's more historically accurate than many realize).

Why won't you, CokeBear, Doc, or Florida answer my question? It was really simple:

When did a writing become the word of God - right as it was being written, or only after it was deemed so by an authority of men?

I think we all know why you guys completely avoided this question.

When it was written, obviously. My question to you is, how do we know it's the word of God? Authorship by an Apostle, though of prime importance, is neither sufficient nor necessary.

So then it's GOD that decides the canon, not man, correct?

And I've already answered your question about the apostles - repeatedly. You really should stop trying to play games.

God decided what was inspired. Men decided what was in the Bible. "Canon" really refers to the latter. It can't mean both the biblical canon and some hypothetical canon.

"Faith in the testimony of the Apostles" doesn't fully answer the question, if only because not all of the canon was written by Apostles. Even if you take what you call their testimony as the sole standard, you still have the problem of determining what that testimony is. Some books of doubtful origin were included, while others were excluded. At some point you're always relying on a judgment.

If God decided what was his inspired word, and the canon is the writings which are the inspired word of God, then God literally decided the canon. Man's responsibility is only to recognize it and receive it. Therefore, there is no "authority" of man that "decided" the canon. This is an incorrect framing that reflects a misconception of what the canon is and means.

We know we have the original apostles' writings through the first hand witness (NOT "authority") of the first century church. We are relying not on their "judgement", but rather on their actual knowledge as to the authenticity and reliability of the apostolicity of these writings. Writings of questionable authorship today, such as the book of Hebrews, were authored during the time of the first century church (Hebrews was written around 67 AD) so the first century Christians KNEW where these writings came from and they clearly considered them authoritative, strongly suggesting apostolic authorship (e.g. Paul for Hebrews, John for Revelation). And since we know the first century church has given us the witness to the actual words of the apostles, and we believe the word of the apostles, then we believe their word that these were Jesus' actual words:

"the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, he will teach you [the apostles] all things and bring to your remembrance all that I have said to you." - Jesus, in John 14:26

"As you sent me into the world, so I have sent them into the world... I do not ask for these only, but also for those who will believe in me through their word" - Jesus, in John 17:18,20


This means the word of the apostles to the church was the inspired word of God for his church, i.e. the canon. It all starts at the beginning with our faith in Jesus Christ through the word of the apostles. The canon reveals itself from there.



Ok I see why you're not making sense. This is just historically false.

If first century Christians actually knew with certainty which writings were apostolic, there would not have been centuries long disputes over Hebrews, James, 2 Peter, Jude, and Revelation, nor persistent regional disagreement between the Eastern and Western churches, nor major Church Fathers rejecting books that other Fathers accepted, nor a closed New Testament canon only emerging through ecclesial consensus in the late fourth century.

You said: "Hebrews was written around 67 AD) so the first century Christians KNEW where these writings came from"
That's not accurate whatsoever. The early Church did not know who wrote Hebrews, explicitly debated its authorship, and ultimately accepted it despite that uncertainty through ecclesial discernment.

Here's the question, though, tying it to the previous point - did Hebrews become the word of God because a council of men said so.... or because GOD said so, and used his Holy Spirit to guide his church to recognize and receive it? You've already kinda answered this, but it's worth reminding you of this point, because it should disavow you of any notion that it was by the authority of man that we have the book of Hebrews in the canon.

Well, that really depends on what you mean by "the canon."

You mean it depends on what you mean by "the canon".

I mean the recognized biblical canon. Did Hebrews become a book of the Bible the moment it was written, or because a council of men said so?

Which "recognized biblical canon"? We don't have the same one. And to which council of men are you referring, considering they approved different canons?

And was Hebrews placed in a biblical canon because a council of men said so, or because a council of men only recognized what GOD had already said so from the moment it was written and given to the first century church, long before any council?
BusyTarpDuster2017
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Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

You're picking a fight where there isn't one. The canon is the canon. My question is why.

Catholics believe the Bible is inerrant on matters of faith and morals, not necessarily science, history, etc. (though I believe it's more historically accurate than many realize).

Why won't you, CokeBear, Doc, or Florida answer my question? It was really simple:

When did a writing become the word of God - right as it was being written, or only after it was deemed so by an authority of men?

I think we all know why you guys completely avoided this question.

When it was written, obviously. My question to you is, how do we know it's the word of God? Authorship by an Apostle, though of prime importance, is neither sufficient nor necessary.

So then it's GOD that decides the canon, not man, correct?

And I've already answered your question about the apostles - repeatedly. You really should stop trying to play games.

Canon means recognition of scripture, not the process of scripture coming to fruition.

So when did God decide what is and isn't legit scripture? How did he go about that?

There's a reason why I asked the question: when does a writing become the word of God, as it's being written or only after it's recognized by men? What's your answer to this question? I

The questions you're asking are demonstrating a misconception about the canon, and your answer to this question is important in clearing it up. So let's get an answer.

When it's written down. That doesn't have anything to do with canon though.



Their responsibility is to recognize it correctly, and receive it.

Yes that's all that canonization means, recognizing what scripture comes from God. You'e just stating that God knows what scripture comes from Him as if that knowledge was written down and given to us, which it wasn't.

There were Christians pushing gnostic scripture early on. They thought it came from God, but they were wrong.
The Church debated on whether Hebrews, James and Revelation were legit or not. Many Christians said no.
If no authoritative judgment took place, then no one could say the gnostics were wrong or that Hebrews and Revelation belong in Scripture. But Christians do say that because the early Church settled the matter on the basis of apostolic authority.

The New Testament you use was recognized by the same Church you claim has no authority. There's no way around this. The moment you admit that some Christians were wrong and the Church had to resolve the dispute, you've already conceded authoritative canonization.

"Canonization" is an ecclesial act of man, who being fallible, may or may not correctly recognize the true canon, which is from God. We both agree that God's word is his word the moment it's written, NOT when it's declared to be so by man. You're not being honest with the implications of this. It clearly means that man does not have the "authority" to determine canon, only the responsibility to recognize and receive it. It is God that is the authority behind the canon. Let's start there - do you agree with this?

You can't move from "this happened" to "this must be binding" without a normative authority to bridge the gap.

We're talking solely about a book's status as being inspired by God.

You're moving from a descriptive claim about what happened (God's word when written) to a normative claim about what must be accepted, without explaining what bridges that gap.

I've told you what bridges that gap many times already. If we believe in the apostles' testimony, that Jesus died and rose from the dead, it means he is Lord. And the Lord told us what is the canon himself. I'd say that's a pretty solid basis for what must be accepted. Any "authority" of man that doesn't listen to Jesus is only making man's bible, not God's.
BusyTarpDuster2017
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Waco1947 said:

It means that it's GOD that decides on and gives the canon, NOT man. This is your misconception. Man does not have the "authority" to "decide" the canon. The canon exists before man recognizes it or knows it's there. Their responsibility is to recognize it correctly and receive it. ......How do you know this?



It's known because it's a logical truth based on what is a true, agreed upon principle, that a writing is the word of God the moment it's written, not because man declares it to be.

The only way you can say it's NOT known, is to say that a writing can become the word of God simply by man's word, thereby putting man above God. And that is utter blasphemy.
Doc Holliday
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BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

You're picking a fight where there isn't one. The canon is the canon. My question is why.

Catholics believe the Bible is inerrant on matters of faith and morals, not necessarily science, history, etc. (though I believe it's more historically accurate than many realize).

Why won't you, CokeBear, Doc, or Florida answer my question? It was really simple:

When did a writing become the word of God - right as it was being written, or only after it was deemed so by an authority of men?

I think we all know why you guys completely avoided this question.

When it was written, obviously. My question to you is, how do we know it's the word of God? Authorship by an Apostle, though of prime importance, is neither sufficient nor necessary.

So then it's GOD that decides the canon, not man, correct?

And I've already answered your question about the apostles - repeatedly. You really should stop trying to play games.

Canon means recognition of scripture, not the process of scripture coming to fruition.

So when did God decide what is and isn't legit scripture? How did he go about that?

There's a reason why I asked the question: when does a writing become the word of God, as it's being written or only after it's recognized by men? What's your answer to this question? I

The questions you're asking are demonstrating a misconception about the canon, and your answer to this question is important in clearing it up. So let's get an answer.

When it's written down. That doesn't have anything to do with canon though.



Their responsibility is to recognize it correctly, and receive it.

Yes that's all that canonization means, recognizing what scripture comes from God. You'e just stating that God knows what scripture comes from Him as if that knowledge was written down and given to us, which it wasn't.

There were Christians pushing gnostic scripture early on. They thought it came from God, but they were wrong.
The Church debated on whether Hebrews, James and Revelation were legit or not. Many Christians said no.
If no authoritative judgment took place, then no one could say the gnostics were wrong or that Hebrews and Revelation belong in Scripture. But Christians do say that because the early Church settled the matter on the basis of apostolic authority.

The New Testament you use was recognized by the same Church you claim has no authority. There's no way around this. The moment you admit that some Christians were wrong and the Church had to resolve the dispute, you've already conceded authoritative canonization.

"Canonization" is an ecclesial act of man, who being fallible, may or may not correctly recognize the true canon, which is from God. We both agree that God's word is his word the moment it's written, NOT when it's declared to be so by man. You're not being honest with the implications of this. It clearly means that man does not have the "authority" to determine canon, only the responsibility to recognize and receive it. It is God that is the authority behind the canon. Let's start there - do you agree with this?

You can't move from "this happened" to "this must be binding" without a normative authority to bridge the gap.

We're talking solely about a book's status as being inspired by God.

You're moving from a descriptive claim about what happened (God's word when written) to a normative claim about what must be accepted, without explaining what bridges that gap.

I've told you what bridges that gap many times already. If we believe in the apostles' testimony, that Jesus died and rose from the dead, it means he is Lord. And the Lord told us what is the canon himself. I'd say that's a pretty solid basis for what must be accepted. Any "authority" of man that doesn't listen to Jesus is only making man's bible, not God's.
When in history did our Lord tell us what the canon is? How did he tell us what scripture belonged in the New Testament? Is that written down?
BusyTarpDuster2017
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Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

You're picking a fight where there isn't one. The canon is the canon. My question is why.

Catholics believe the Bible is inerrant on matters of faith and morals, not necessarily science, history, etc. (though I believe it's more historically accurate than many realize).

Why won't you, CokeBear, Doc, or Florida answer my question? It was really simple:

When did a writing become the word of God - right as it was being written, or only after it was deemed so by an authority of men?

I think we all know why you guys completely avoided this question.

When it was written, obviously. My question to you is, how do we know it's the word of God? Authorship by an Apostle, though of prime importance, is neither sufficient nor necessary.

So then it's GOD that decides the canon, not man, correct?

And I've already answered your question about the apostles - repeatedly. You really should stop trying to play games.

Canon means recognition of scripture, not the process of scripture coming to fruition.

So when did God decide what is and isn't legit scripture? How did he go about that?

There's a reason why I asked the question: when does a writing become the word of God, as it's being written or only after it's recognized by men? What's your answer to this question? I

The questions you're asking are demonstrating a misconception about the canon, and your answer to this question is important in clearing it up. So let's get an answer.

When it's written down. That doesn't have anything to do with canon though.



Their responsibility is to recognize it correctly, and receive it.

Yes that's all that canonization means, recognizing what scripture comes from God. You'e just stating that God knows what scripture comes from Him as if that knowledge was written down and given to us, which it wasn't.

There were Christians pushing gnostic scripture early on. They thought it came from God, but they were wrong.
The Church debated on whether Hebrews, James and Revelation were legit or not. Many Christians said no.
If no authoritative judgment took place, then no one could say the gnostics were wrong or that Hebrews and Revelation belong in Scripture. But Christians do say that because the early Church settled the matter on the basis of apostolic authority.

The New Testament you use was recognized by the same Church you claim has no authority. There's no way around this. The moment you admit that some Christians were wrong and the Church had to resolve the dispute, you've already conceded authoritative canonization.

"Canonization" is an ecclesial act of man, who being fallible, may or may not correctly recognize the true canon, which is from God. We both agree that God's word is his word the moment it's written, NOT when it's declared to be so by man. You're not being honest with the implications of this. It clearly means that man does not have the "authority" to determine canon, only the responsibility to recognize and receive it. It is God that is the authority behind the canon. Let's start there - do you agree with this?

You can't move from "this happened" to "this must be binding" without a normative authority to bridge the gap.

We're talking solely about a book's status as being inspired by God.

You're moving from a descriptive claim about what happened (God's word when written) to a normative claim about what must be accepted, without explaining what bridges that gap.

I've told you what bridges that gap many times already. If we believe in the apostles' testimony, that Jesus died and rose from the dead, it means he is Lord. And the Lord told us what is the canon himself. I'd say that's a pretty solid basis for what must be accepted. Any "authority" of man that doesn't listen to Jesus is only making man's bible, not God's.

When in history did our Lord tell us what the canon is? How did he tell us what scripture belonged in the New Testament? Is that written down?

Are you not paying any attention to anything I'm saying? Am I talking to a wall?
Coke Bear
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You are not answering the real question honestly.

God NEVER told anyone what was canon. It had to be discerned. It wasn't discerned by some nebulous "group of believers."

It was the Catholic Church, the OG Christians, that discerned what is considered cannon. It took centuries of debate to discern what is and isn't canon. This done at the Councils of Rome, Hippo, and Carthage.

If you can site another group of Christians that discerned what was canon and what wasn't, I'd be happy to read your sources.
 
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