A Tale of Three Churches

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BusyTarpDuster2017
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Coke Bear said:

You are not answering the real question honestly.

God NEVER told anyone what was canon. It had to be discerned. It wasn't discerned by some nebulous "group of believers."

It was the Catholic Church, the OG Christians, that discerned what is considered cannon. It took centuries of debate to discern what is and isn't canon. This done at the Councils of Rome, Hippo, and Carthage.

If you can site another group of Christians that discerned what was canon and what wasn't, I'd be happy to read your sources.

Do you want to be another brick in the wall where everything bounces off, or do you want to actually absorb what is being said and exercise some thinking? Are you guys really this dull?
Doc Holliday
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Doc Holliday
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BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

You're picking a fight where there isn't one. The canon is the canon. My question is why.

Catholics believe the Bible is inerrant on matters of faith and morals, not necessarily science, history, etc. (though I believe it's more historically accurate than many realize).

Why won't you, CokeBear, Doc, or Florida answer my question? It was really simple:

When did a writing become the word of God - right as it was being written, or only after it was deemed so by an authority of men?

I think we all know why you guys completely avoided this question.

When it was written, obviously. My question to you is, how do we know it's the word of God? Authorship by an Apostle, though of prime importance, is neither sufficient nor necessary.

So then it's GOD that decides the canon, not man, correct?

And I've already answered your question about the apostles - repeatedly. You really should stop trying to play games.

Canon means recognition of scripture, not the process of scripture coming to fruition.

So when did God decide what is and isn't legit scripture? How did he go about that?

There's a reason why I asked the question: when does a writing become the word of God, as it's being written or only after it's recognized by men? What's your answer to this question? I

The questions you're asking are demonstrating a misconception about the canon, and your answer to this question is important in clearing it up. So let's get an answer.

When it's written down. That doesn't have anything to do with canon though.



Their responsibility is to recognize it correctly, and receive it.

Yes that's all that canonization means, recognizing what scripture comes from God. You'e just stating that God knows what scripture comes from Him as if that knowledge was written down and given to us, which it wasn't.

There were Christians pushing gnostic scripture early on. They thought it came from God, but they were wrong.
The Church debated on whether Hebrews, James and Revelation were legit or not. Many Christians said no.
If no authoritative judgment took place, then no one could say the gnostics were wrong or that Hebrews and Revelation belong in Scripture. But Christians do say that because the early Church settled the matter on the basis of apostolic authority.

The New Testament you use was recognized by the same Church you claim has no authority. There's no way around this. The moment you admit that some Christians were wrong and the Church had to resolve the dispute, you've already conceded authoritative canonization.

"Canonization" is an ecclesial act of man, who being fallible, may or may not correctly recognize the true canon, which is from God. We both agree that God's word is his word the moment it's written, NOT when it's declared to be so by man. You're not being honest with the implications of this. It clearly means that man does not have the "authority" to determine canon, only the responsibility to recognize and receive it. It is God that is the authority behind the canon. Let's start there - do you agree with this?

You can't move from "this happened" to "this must be binding" without a normative authority to bridge the gap.

We're talking solely about a book's status as being inspired by God.

You're moving from a descriptive claim about what happened (God's word when written) to a normative claim about what must be accepted, without explaining what bridges that gap.

I've told you what bridges that gap many times already. If we believe in the apostles' testimony, that Jesus died and rose from the dead, it means he is Lord. And the Lord told us what is the canon himself. I'd say that's a pretty solid basis for what must be accepted. Any "authority" of man that doesn't listen to Jesus is only making man's bible, not God's.

When in history did our Lord tell us what the canon is? How did he tell us what scripture belonged in the New Testament? Is that written down?

Are you not paying any attention to anything I'm saying? Am I talking to a wall?
You said "the Lord told us what is the canon himself".

I'm asking you to point out when and how that took place.
Sam Lowry
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BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

You're picking a fight where there isn't one. The canon is the canon. My question is why.

Catholics believe the Bible is inerrant on matters of faith and morals, not necessarily science, history, etc. (though I believe it's more historically accurate than many realize).

Why won't you, CokeBear, Doc, or Florida answer my question? It was really simple:

When did a writing become the word of God - right as it was being written, or only after it was deemed so by an authority of men?

I think we all know why you guys completely avoided this question.

When it was written, obviously. My question to you is, how do we know it's the word of God? Authorship by an Apostle, though of prime importance, is neither sufficient nor necessary.

So then it's GOD that decides the canon, not man, correct?

And I've already answered your question about the apostles - repeatedly. You really should stop trying to play games.

God decided what was inspired. Men decided what was in the Bible. "Canon" really refers to the latter. It can't mean both the biblical canon and some hypothetical canon.

"Faith in the testimony of the Apostles" doesn't fully answer the question, if only because not all of the canon was written by Apostles. Even if you take what you call their testimony as the sole standard, you still have the problem of determining what that testimony is. Some books of doubtful origin were included, while others were excluded. At some point you're always relying on a judgment.

If God decided what was his inspired word, and the canon is the writings which are the inspired word of God, then God literally decided the canon. Man's responsibility is only to recognize it and receive it. Therefore, there is no "authority" of man that "decided" the canon. This is an incorrect framing that reflects a misconception of what the canon is and means.

We know we have the original apostles' writings through the first hand witness (NOT "authority") of the first century church. We are relying not on their "judgement", but rather on their actual knowledge as to the authenticity and reliability of the apostolicity of these writings. Writings of questionable authorship today, such as the book of Hebrews, were authored during the time of the first century church (Hebrews was written around 67 AD) so the first century Christians KNEW where these writings came from and they clearly considered them authoritative, strongly suggesting apostolic authorship (e.g. Paul for Hebrews, John for Revelation). And since we know the first century church has given us the witness to the actual words of the apostles, and we believe the word of the apostles, then we believe their word that these were Jesus' actual words:

"the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, he will teach you [the apostles] all things and bring to your remembrance all that I have said to you." - Jesus, in John 14:26

"As you sent me into the world, so I have sent them into the world... I do not ask for these only, but also for those who will believe in me through their word" - Jesus, in John 17:18,20


This means the word of the apostles to the church was the inspired word of God for his church, i.e. the canon. It all starts at the beginning with our faith in Jesus Christ through the word of the apostles. The canon reveals itself from there.



Ok I see why you're not making sense. This is just historically false.

If first century Christians actually knew with certainty which writings were apostolic, there would not have been centuries long disputes over Hebrews, James, 2 Peter, Jude, and Revelation, nor persistent regional disagreement between the Eastern and Western churches, nor major Church Fathers rejecting books that other Fathers accepted, nor a closed New Testament canon only emerging through ecclesial consensus in the late fourth century.

You said: "Hebrews was written around 67 AD) so the first century Christians KNEW where these writings came from"
That's not accurate whatsoever. The early Church did not know who wrote Hebrews, explicitly debated its authorship, and ultimately accepted it despite that uncertainty through ecclesial discernment.

Here's the question, though, tying it to the previous point - did Hebrews become the word of God because a council of men said so.... or because GOD said so, and used his Holy Spirit to guide his church to recognize and receive it? You've already kinda answered this, but it's worth reminding you of this point, because it should disavow you of any notion that it was by the authority of man that we have the book of Hebrews in the canon.

Well, that really depends on what you mean by "the canon."

You mean it depends on what you mean by "the canon".

I mean the recognized biblical canon. Did Hebrews become a book of the Bible the moment it was written, or because a council of men said so?

Which "recognized biblical canon"? We don't have the same one. And to which council of men are you referring, considering they approved different canons?

And was Hebrews placed in a biblical canon because a council of men said so, or because a council of men only recognized what GOD had already said so from the moment it was written and given to the first century church, long before any council?

You're avoiding the question with semantics. Call it a decision, a recognition, or whatever you want to call it. We're referring to the same thing, i.e. the human act of assembling the New Testament.
Mothra
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Coke Bear said:

You are not answering the real question honestly.

God NEVER told anyone what was canon. It had to be discerned. It wasn't discerned by some nebulous "group of believers."

It was the Catholic Church, the OG Christians, that discerned what is considered cannon. It took centuries of debate to discern what is and isn't canon. This done at the Councils of Rome, Hippo, and Carthage.

If you can site another group of Christians that discerned what was canon and what wasn't, I'd be happy to read your sources.


I understand that the Catholics on this thread are having a fit about busty, but I'm just trying to understand the relevance? What does that have to do with the price of tea in China?
BusyTarpDuster2017
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Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

You're picking a fight where there isn't one. The canon is the canon. My question is why.

Catholics believe the Bible is inerrant on matters of faith and morals, not necessarily science, history, etc. (though I believe it's more historically accurate than many realize).

Why won't you, CokeBear, Doc, or Florida answer my question? It was really simple:

When did a writing become the word of God - right as it was being written, or only after it was deemed so by an authority of men?

I think we all know why you guys completely avoided this question.

When it was written, obviously. My question to you is, how do we know it's the word of God? Authorship by an Apostle, though of prime importance, is neither sufficient nor necessary.

So then it's GOD that decides the canon, not man, correct?

And I've already answered your question about the apostles - repeatedly. You really should stop trying to play games.

God decided what was inspired. Men decided what was in the Bible. "Canon" really refers to the latter. It can't mean both the biblical canon and some hypothetical canon.

"Faith in the testimony of the Apostles" doesn't fully answer the question, if only because not all of the canon was written by Apostles. Even if you take what you call their testimony as the sole standard, you still have the problem of determining what that testimony is. Some books of doubtful origin were included, while others were excluded. At some point you're always relying on a judgment.

If God decided what was his inspired word, and the canon is the writings which are the inspired word of God, then God literally decided the canon. Man's responsibility is only to recognize it and receive it. Therefore, there is no "authority" of man that "decided" the canon. This is an incorrect framing that reflects a misconception of what the canon is and means.

We know we have the original apostles' writings through the first hand witness (NOT "authority") of the first century church. We are relying not on their "judgement", but rather on their actual knowledge as to the authenticity and reliability of the apostolicity of these writings. Writings of questionable authorship today, such as the book of Hebrews, were authored during the time of the first century church (Hebrews was written around 67 AD) so the first century Christians KNEW where these writings came from and they clearly considered them authoritative, strongly suggesting apostolic authorship (e.g. Paul for Hebrews, John for Revelation). And since we know the first century church has given us the witness to the actual words of the apostles, and we believe the word of the apostles, then we believe their word that these were Jesus' actual words:

"the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, he will teach you [the apostles] all things and bring to your remembrance all that I have said to you." - Jesus, in John 14:26

"As you sent me into the world, so I have sent them into the world... I do not ask for these only, but also for those who will believe in me through their word" - Jesus, in John 17:18,20


This means the word of the apostles to the church was the inspired word of God for his church, i.e. the canon. It all starts at the beginning with our faith in Jesus Christ through the word of the apostles. The canon reveals itself from there.



Ok I see why you're not making sense. This is just historically false.

If first century Christians actually knew with certainty which writings were apostolic, there would not have been centuries long disputes over Hebrews, James, 2 Peter, Jude, and Revelation, nor persistent regional disagreement between the Eastern and Western churches, nor major Church Fathers rejecting books that other Fathers accepted, nor a closed New Testament canon only emerging through ecclesial consensus in the late fourth century.

You said: "Hebrews was written around 67 AD) so the first century Christians KNEW where these writings came from"
That's not accurate whatsoever. The early Church did not know who wrote Hebrews, explicitly debated its authorship, and ultimately accepted it despite that uncertainty through ecclesial discernment.

Here's the question, though, tying it to the previous point - did Hebrews become the word of God because a council of men said so.... or because GOD said so, and used his Holy Spirit to guide his church to recognize and receive it? You've already kinda answered this, but it's worth reminding you of this point, because it should disavow you of any notion that it was by the authority of man that we have the book of Hebrews in the canon.

Well, that really depends on what you mean by "the canon."

You mean it depends on what you mean by "the canon".

I mean the recognized biblical canon. Did Hebrews become a book of the Bible the moment it was written, or because a council of men said so?

Which "recognized biblical canon"? We don't have the same one. And to which council of men are you referring, considering they approved different canons?

And was Hebrews placed in a biblical canon because a council of men said so, or because a council of men only recognized what GOD had already said so from the moment it was written and given to the first century church, long before any council?

You're avoiding the question with semantics. Call it a decision, a recognition, or whatever you want to call it. We're referring to the same thing, i.e. the human act of assembling the New Testament.

I'm not avoiding any question, let alone arguing semantics. My response was highlighting the fact that it was by no church "authority" or her act of "assembling" anything that the first century Christians recognized the written word of God. The writings themselves were self-authenticating in that they had or were directly tied to original apostolic authorship, which the first century Christians were able to confirm directly. By the word of the apostles, Jesus himself validated their word as directly coming from God.

The "authority" of later church councils in "assembling" those writings was firmly based on the witness of the first century Christians, not by any "authority" of those first century Christians. By extension, there was no authority inherent in the later church councils in declaring divine inspiration in those writings or in any new writings or traditions; rather, they only had the responsibility to correctly preserve and protect the divinely inspired writings already recognized and received, the ability to do so being passed to them in direct line of succession starting from Jesus, to the apostles, through the witness of the first century Christians, and every Christian guided by the Holy Spirit thereafter. The church councils were only one part of the chain in God's plan to preserve his word for the world for all time. They only responded to the real authority behind the canon, they were not authorities in of themselves.
BusyTarpDuster2017
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Doc Holliday said:

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When it was written, obviously. My question to you is, how do we know it's the word of God? Authorship by an Apostle, though of prime importance, is neither sufficient nor necessary.

So then it's GOD that decides the canon, not man, correct?

And I've already answered your question about the apostles - repeatedly. You really should stop trying to play games.

Canon means recognition of scripture, not the process of scripture coming to fruition.

So when did God decide what is and isn't legit scripture? How did he go about that?

There's a reason why I asked the question: when does a writing become the word of God, as it's being written or only after it's recognized by men? What's your answer to this question? I

The questions you're asking are demonstrating a misconception about the canon, and your answer to this question is important in clearing it up. So let's get an answer.

When it's written down. That doesn't have anything to do with canon though.



Their responsibility is to recognize it correctly, and receive it.

Yes that's all that canonization means, recognizing what scripture comes from God. You'e just stating that God knows what scripture comes from Him as if that knowledge was written down and given to us, which it wasn't.

There were Christians pushing gnostic scripture early on. They thought it came from God, but they were wrong.
The Church debated on whether Hebrews, James and Revelation were legit or not. Many Christians said no.
If no authoritative judgment took place, then no one could say the gnostics were wrong or that Hebrews and Revelation belong in Scripture. But Christians do say that because the early Church settled the matter on the basis of apostolic authority.

The New Testament you use was recognized by the same Church you claim has no authority. There's no way around this. The moment you admit that some Christians were wrong and the Church had to resolve the dispute, you've already conceded authoritative canonization.

"Canonization" is an ecclesial act of man, who being fallible, may or may not correctly recognize the true canon, which is from God. We both agree that God's word is his word the moment it's written, NOT when it's declared to be so by man. You're not being honest with the implications of this. It clearly means that man does not have the "authority" to determine canon, only the responsibility to recognize and receive it. It is God that is the authority behind the canon. Let's start there - do you agree with this?

You can't move from "this happened" to "this must be binding" without a normative authority to bridge the gap.

We're talking solely about a book's status as being inspired by God.

You're moving from a descriptive claim about what happened (God's word when written) to a normative claim about what must be accepted, without explaining what bridges that gap.

I've told you what bridges that gap many times already. If we believe in the apostles' testimony, that Jesus died and rose from the dead, it means he is Lord. And the Lord told us what is the canon himself. I'd say that's a pretty solid basis for what must be accepted. Any "authority" of man that doesn't listen to Jesus is only making man's bible, not God's.

When in history did our Lord tell us what the canon is? How did he tell us what scripture belonged in the New Testament? Is that written down?

Are you not paying any attention to anything I'm saying? Am I talking to a wall?

You said "the Lord told us what is the canon himself".

I'm asking you to point out when and how that took place.

If the canon is to contain only the divine inspired word of God, then Jesus told us what that is. I've already shown you where. If you want to give men the authority to declare what that is instead of Jesus, then you're following the fallible canon of man, not the infallible canon of God.
BusyTarpDuster2017
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Mothra said:

Coke Bear said:

You are not answering the real question honestly.

God NEVER told anyone what was canon. It had to be discerned. It wasn't discerned by some nebulous "group of believers."

It was the Catholic Church, the OG Christians, that discerned what is considered cannon. It took centuries of debate to discern what is and isn't canon. This done at the Councils of Rome, Hippo, and Carthage.

If you can site another group of Christians that discerned what was canon and what wasn't, I'd be happy to read your sources.


I understand that the Catholics on this thread are having a fit about busty, but I'm just trying to understand the relevance? What does that have to do with the price of tea in China?

Here's the reason:

Rooted in their argument about the infallible canon is their claim for an infallible authority to authenticate their unbiblical traditions. They need to establish that the same authority behind the canon is the same authority behind their traditions. You claim authority for the canon, you claim authority to add anything you want to what the original apostles taught. That's how you get from the gospel of grace.... to a gospel of works, an insufficient divine sacrifice requiring sacraments and purgatory to make man "right" with God, and even giving Mary credit for our salvation.
Coke Bear
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Mothra said:


I am surprised at how badly you and Sam are completely missing the point, my Catholic friend. Using historical (or call them extra-biblical, if you will) sources to confirm the authenticity/accuracy of scripture, and saying that teachings/doctrine from extra biblical sources (especially those that are not mentioned or contradict scripture) you would call "tradition" are on par with scripture or should be taught are two completely different things.

You're analogy is essentially comparing apples to bowling balls, it's so far off.
Take away the analogy if you'd like (even though all Catholic Church's teachings do have a biblical basis - protestants just don't except them, but that's beside the point.)

The point is that sola scriptura is self-refuting when one cannot use scripture to prove which books belong to the bible.

The bible never makes the claim that is it the ONLY sole rule of faith.
Doc Holliday
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BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Doc Holliday said:

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When it was written, obviously. My question to you is, how do we know it's the word of God? Authorship by an Apostle, though of prime importance, is neither sufficient nor necessary.

So then it's GOD that decides the canon, not man, correct?

And I've already answered your question about the apostles - repeatedly. You really should stop trying to play games.

Canon means recognition of scripture, not the process of scripture coming to fruition.

So when did God decide what is and isn't legit scripture? How did he go about that?

There's a reason why I asked the question: when does a writing become the word of God, as it's being written or only after it's recognized by men? What's your answer to this question? I

The questions you're asking are demonstrating a misconception about the canon, and your answer to this question is important in clearing it up. So let's get an answer.

When it's written down. That doesn't have anything to do with canon though.



Their responsibility is to recognize it correctly, and receive it.

Yes that's all that canonization means, recognizing what scripture comes from God. You'e just stating that God knows what scripture comes from Him as if that knowledge was written down and given to us, which it wasn't.

There were Christians pushing gnostic scripture early on. They thought it came from God, but they were wrong.
The Church debated on whether Hebrews, James and Revelation were legit or not. Many Christians said no.
If no authoritative judgment took place, then no one could say the gnostics were wrong or that Hebrews and Revelation belong in Scripture. But Christians do say that because the early Church settled the matter on the basis of apostolic authority.

The New Testament you use was recognized by the same Church you claim has no authority. There's no way around this. The moment you admit that some Christians were wrong and the Church had to resolve the dispute, you've already conceded authoritative canonization.

"Canonization" is an ecclesial act of man, who being fallible, may or may not correctly recognize the true canon, which is from God. We both agree that God's word is his word the moment it's written, NOT when it's declared to be so by man. You're not being honest with the implications of this. It clearly means that man does not have the "authority" to determine canon, only the responsibility to recognize and receive it. It is God that is the authority behind the canon. Let's start there - do you agree with this?

You can't move from "this happened" to "this must be binding" without a normative authority to bridge the gap.

We're talking solely about a book's status as being inspired by God.

You're moving from a descriptive claim about what happened (God's word when written) to a normative claim about what must be accepted, without explaining what bridges that gap.

I've told you what bridges that gap many times already. If we believe in the apostles' testimony, that Jesus died and rose from the dead, it means he is Lord. And the Lord told us what is the canon himself. I'd say that's a pretty solid basis for what must be accepted. Any "authority" of man that doesn't listen to Jesus is only making man's bible, not God's.

When in history did our Lord tell us what the canon is? How did he tell us what scripture belonged in the New Testament? Is that written down?

Are you not paying any attention to anything I'm saying? Am I talking to a wall?

You said "the Lord told us what is the canon himself".

I'm asking you to point out when and how that took place.

If the canon is to contain only the divine inspired word of God, then Jesus told us what that is. I've already shown you where. If you want to give men the authority to declare what that is instead of Jesus, then you're following the fallible canon of man, not the infallible canon of God.
So the 27 books in the New Testament in the Bible you own just happen to match the Church's testimony about which writings count as apostolic and inspired?
BusyTarpDuster2017
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Coke Bear said:

Mothra said:


I am surprised at how badly you and Sam are completely missing the point, my Catholic friend. Using historical (or call them extra-biblical, if you will) sources to confirm the authenticity/accuracy of scripture, and saying that teachings/doctrine from extra biblical sources (especially those that are not mentioned or contradict scripture) you would call "tradition" are on par with scripture or should be taught are two completely different things.

You're analogy is essentially comparing apples to bowling balls, it's so far off.

Take away the analogy if you'd like (even though all Catholic Church's teachings do have a biblical basis - protestants just don't except them, but that's beside the point.)

The point is that sola scriptura is self-refuting when one cannot use scripture to prove which books belong to the bible.

The bible never makes the claim that is it the ONLY sole rule of faith.

Sigh, another brick in the wall. To repeat, again:

Sola scriptura exists only after there's a scripture, not before. Therefore it can't refute itself before it even exists. Saying that sola scriptura has to be proven by a circular argument (scripture has to prove what is scripture) is a fallacy in of itself.

You're just not grasping the flaw in your logic, and you continue to have the same misconception of sola scriptura, even after having it explained over and over. And like a broken record, you're repeating the same flaw in your logic over and over and over, having learned nothing, having absorbed nothing. Like a brick wall, everything just bounces off, yet you keep laying more brick. You're cementing yourself in ignorance.
BusyTarpDuster2017
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Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Doc Holliday said:

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When it was written, obviously. My question to you is, how do we know it's the word of God? Authorship by an Apostle, though of prime importance, is neither sufficient nor necessary.

So then it's GOD that decides the canon, not man, correct?

And I've already answered your question about the apostles - repeatedly. You really should stop trying to play games.

Canon means recognition of scripture, not the process of scripture coming to fruition.

So when did God decide what is and isn't legit scripture? How did he go about that?

There's a reason why I asked the question: when does a writing become the word of God, as it's being written or only after it's recognized by men? What's your answer to this question? I

The questions you're asking are demonstrating a misconception about the canon, and your answer to this question is important in clearing it up. So let's get an answer.

When it's written down. That doesn't have anything to do with canon though.



Their responsibility is to recognize it correctly, and receive it.

Yes that's all that canonization means, recognizing what scripture comes from God. You'e just stating that God knows what scripture comes from Him as if that knowledge was written down and given to us, which it wasn't.

There were Christians pushing gnostic scripture early on. They thought it came from God, but they were wrong.
The Church debated on whether Hebrews, James and Revelation were legit or not. Many Christians said no.
If no authoritative judgment took place, then no one could say the gnostics were wrong or that Hebrews and Revelation belong in Scripture. But Christians do say that because the early Church settled the matter on the basis of apostolic authority.

The New Testament you use was recognized by the same Church you claim has no authority. There's no way around this. The moment you admit that some Christians were wrong and the Church had to resolve the dispute, you've already conceded authoritative canonization.

"Canonization" is an ecclesial act of man, who being fallible, may or may not correctly recognize the true canon, which is from God. We both agree that God's word is his word the moment it's written, NOT when it's declared to be so by man. You're not being honest with the implications of this. It clearly means that man does not have the "authority" to determine canon, only the responsibility to recognize and receive it. It is God that is the authority behind the canon. Let's start there - do you agree with this?

You can't move from "this happened" to "this must be binding" without a normative authority to bridge the gap.

We're talking solely about a book's status as being inspired by God.

You're moving from a descriptive claim about what happened (God's word when written) to a normative claim about what must be accepted, without explaining what bridges that gap.

I've told you what bridges that gap many times already. If we believe in the apostles' testimony, that Jesus died and rose from the dead, it means he is Lord. And the Lord told us what is the canon himself. I'd say that's a pretty solid basis for what must be accepted. Any "authority" of man that doesn't listen to Jesus is only making man's bible, not God's.

When in history did our Lord tell us what the canon is? How did he tell us what scripture belonged in the New Testament? Is that written down?

Are you not paying any attention to anything I'm saying? Am I talking to a wall?

You said "the Lord told us what is the canon himself".

I'm asking you to point out when and how that took place.

If the canon is to contain only the divine inspired word of God, then Jesus told us what that is. I've already shown you where. If you want to give men the authority to declare what that is instead of Jesus, then you're following the fallible canon of man, not the infallible canon of God.

So the 27 books in the New Testament in the Bible you own just happen to match the Church's testimony about which writings count as apostolic and inspired?

Yes, to their "testimony" as to the accurate history and preservation of the self-authenticating word of the apostles, as affirmed by the first-hand witness of the first century church - NOT through any inherent "church authority" to decide on its authentication and declare it as such.

"Testimony" is a much more accurate conceptualization of the canon process than "authority". There was only ONE authority over Scripture - the knowledge of which has been passed down in time fully preserved, through man's "testimony" rather than man's "authority".
Doc Holliday
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BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Doc Holliday said:

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When it was written, obviously. My question to you is, how do we know it's the word of God? Authorship by an Apostle, though of prime importance, is neither sufficient nor necessary.

So then it's GOD that decides the canon, not man, correct?

And I've already answered your question about the apostles - repeatedly. You really should stop trying to play games.

Canon means recognition of scripture, not the process of scripture coming to fruition.

So when did God decide what is and isn't legit scripture? How did he go about that?

There's a reason why I asked the question: when does a writing become the word of God, as it's being written or only after it's recognized by men? What's your answer to this question? I

The questions you're asking are demonstrating a misconception about the canon, and your answer to this question is important in clearing it up. So let's get an answer.

When it's written down. That doesn't have anything to do with canon though.



Their responsibility is to recognize it correctly, and receive it.

Yes that's all that canonization means, recognizing what scripture comes from God. You'e just stating that God knows what scripture comes from Him as if that knowledge was written down and given to us, which it wasn't.

There were Christians pushing gnostic scripture early on. They thought it came from God, but they were wrong.
The Church debated on whether Hebrews, James and Revelation were legit or not. Many Christians said no.
If no authoritative judgment took place, then no one could say the gnostics were wrong or that Hebrews and Revelation belong in Scripture. But Christians do say that because the early Church settled the matter on the basis of apostolic authority.

The New Testament you use was recognized by the same Church you claim has no authority. There's no way around this. The moment you admit that some Christians were wrong and the Church had to resolve the dispute, you've already conceded authoritative canonization.

"Canonization" is an ecclesial act of man, who being fallible, may or may not correctly recognize the true canon, which is from God. We both agree that God's word is his word the moment it's written, NOT when it's declared to be so by man. You're not being honest with the implications of this. It clearly means that man does not have the "authority" to determine canon, only the responsibility to recognize and receive it. It is God that is the authority behind the canon. Let's start there - do you agree with this?

You can't move from "this happened" to "this must be binding" without a normative authority to bridge the gap.

We're talking solely about a book's status as being inspired by God.

You're moving from a descriptive claim about what happened (God's word when written) to a normative claim about what must be accepted, without explaining what bridges that gap.

I've told you what bridges that gap many times already. If we believe in the apostles' testimony, that Jesus died and rose from the dead, it means he is Lord. And the Lord told us what is the canon himself. I'd say that's a pretty solid basis for what must be accepted. Any "authority" of man that doesn't listen to Jesus is only making man's bible, not God's.

When in history did our Lord tell us what the canon is? How did he tell us what scripture belonged in the New Testament? Is that written down?

Are you not paying any attention to anything I'm saying? Am I talking to a wall?

You said "the Lord told us what is the canon himself".

I'm asking you to point out when and how that took place.

If the canon is to contain only the divine inspired word of God, then Jesus told us what that is. I've already shown you where. If you want to give men the authority to declare what that is instead of Jesus, then you're following the fallible canon of man, not the infallible canon of God.

So the 27 books in the New Testament in the Bible you own just happen to match the Church's testimony about which writings count as apostolic and inspired?

Yes, to their "testimony" as to the accurate history and preservation of the self-authenticating word of the apostles, as affirmed by the first-hand witness of the first century church - NOT through any inherent "church authority" to decide on its authentication and declare it as such.

"Testimony" is a much more accurate conceptualization of the canon process than "authority". There was only ONE authority over Scripture - the knowledge of which has been passed down in time fully preserved, through man's "testimony" rather than man's "authority".
You keep insisting on "testimony" instead of "authority," as if renaming the act somehow changes what's happening. It doesn't. If testimonies conflict, which they did on a tremendous level, someone must judge which testimony is true, which is false, and which is rejected. That act is authority in function, whether you like the word or not.

Jesus never defined the Trinity, Scripture never lists a Nicene formulation, and early Christians violently disagreed about it. By your logic (testimony without authority) why is Nicene Trinitarianism, that you hold to, binding rather than just the view that survived historically?

Coke Bear
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Mothra said:


I understand that the Catholics on this thread are having a fit about busty, but I'm just trying to understand the relevance? What does that have to do with the price of tea in China?

You've asked a fair question.

We all agree that the Bible is the infallible word of God.

How did we get that infallible word?

Let's ignore the OT for the time being. We all agree that the books were written by fallible men inspired by the Holy Spirit over 50 years.

What we disagree about is HOW the books became canon.

BDT seems to think that all believers in the first century " just knew" what books were scripture. That's completely false. Debate was waged for the first few centuries about which books were and weren't scripture.

It was the Catholic Church that possessed an infallible authority to discern what books were and weren't canon.

If the Church possesses the infallible authority to discern what is canon, then scripture in NOT the ONLY infallible source.

Please note, this doesn't mean that the men in the Church as always infallible. Far from it. The Bishops exercise the Church's supreme teaching authority (Magisterium) together with the Pope.
Coke Bear
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BusyTarpDuster2017 said:


Rooted in their argument about the infallible canon is their claim for an infallible authority to authenticate their unbiblical traditions. They need to establish that the same authority behind the canon is the same authority behind their traditions. You claim authority for the canon, you claim authority to add anything you want to what the original apostles taught. That's how you get from the gospel of grace.... to a gospel of works, an insufficient divine sacrifice requiring sacraments and purgatory to make man "right" with God, and even giving Mary credit for our salvation.
You are half correct here.

You are COMPETELY incorrect about the Church's traditions being unbiblical. They are ALL biblical, you just don't accept them.

The part that you are correct about is the fact that the Church does have the infallible authority to discern canon and that means that Scripture is NOT the ONLY sole infallible rule.

This frightens you so much. Because it shatters your false believe in sola scriptura. And if that is false (which it is), it destroys your whole made-up theology.
Sam Lowry
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BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

You're picking a fight where there isn't one. The canon is the canon. My question is why.

Catholics believe the Bible is inerrant on matters of faith and morals, not necessarily science, history, etc. (though I believe it's more historically accurate than many realize).

Why won't you, CokeBear, Doc, or Florida answer my question? It was really simple:

When did a writing become the word of God - right as it was being written, or only after it was deemed so by an authority of men?

I think we all know why you guys completely avoided this question.

When it was written, obviously. My question to you is, how do we know it's the word of God? Authorship by an Apostle, though of prime importance, is neither sufficient nor necessary.

So then it's GOD that decides the canon, not man, correct?

And I've already answered your question about the apostles - repeatedly. You really should stop trying to play games.

God decided what was inspired. Men decided what was in the Bible. "Canon" really refers to the latter. It can't mean both the biblical canon and some hypothetical canon.

"Faith in the testimony of the Apostles" doesn't fully answer the question, if only because not all of the canon was written by Apostles. Even if you take what you call their testimony as the sole standard, you still have the problem of determining what that testimony is. Some books of doubtful origin were included, while others were excluded. At some point you're always relying on a judgment.

If God decided what was his inspired word, and the canon is the writings which are the inspired word of God, then God literally decided the canon. Man's responsibility is only to recognize it and receive it. Therefore, there is no "authority" of man that "decided" the canon. This is an incorrect framing that reflects a misconception of what the canon is and means.

We know we have the original apostles' writings through the first hand witness (NOT "authority") of the first century church. We are relying not on their "judgement", but rather on their actual knowledge as to the authenticity and reliability of the apostolicity of these writings. Writings of questionable authorship today, such as the book of Hebrews, were authored during the time of the first century church (Hebrews was written around 67 AD) so the first century Christians KNEW where these writings came from and they clearly considered them authoritative, strongly suggesting apostolic authorship (e.g. Paul for Hebrews, John for Revelation). And since we know the first century church has given us the witness to the actual words of the apostles, and we believe the word of the apostles, then we believe their word that these were Jesus' actual words:

"the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, he will teach you [the apostles] all things and bring to your remembrance all that I have said to you." - Jesus, in John 14:26

"As you sent me into the world, so I have sent them into the world... I do not ask for these only, but also for those who will believe in me through their word" - Jesus, in John 17:18,20


This means the word of the apostles to the church was the inspired word of God for his church, i.e. the canon. It all starts at the beginning with our faith in Jesus Christ through the word of the apostles. The canon reveals itself from there.



Ok I see why you're not making sense. This is just historically false.

If first century Christians actually knew with certainty which writings were apostolic, there would not have been centuries long disputes over Hebrews, James, 2 Peter, Jude, and Revelation, nor persistent regional disagreement between the Eastern and Western churches, nor major Church Fathers rejecting books that other Fathers accepted, nor a closed New Testament canon only emerging through ecclesial consensus in the late fourth century.

You said: "Hebrews was written around 67 AD) so the first century Christians KNEW where these writings came from"
That's not accurate whatsoever. The early Church did not know who wrote Hebrews, explicitly debated its authorship, and ultimately accepted it despite that uncertainty through ecclesial discernment.

Here's the question, though, tying it to the previous point - did Hebrews become the word of God because a council of men said so.... or because GOD said so, and used his Holy Spirit to guide his church to recognize and receive it? You've already kinda answered this, but it's worth reminding you of this point, because it should disavow you of any notion that it was by the authority of man that we have the book of Hebrews in the canon.

Well, that really depends on what you mean by "the canon."

You mean it depends on what you mean by "the canon".

I mean the recognized biblical canon. Did Hebrews become a book of the Bible the moment it was written, or because a council of men said so?

Which "recognized biblical canon"? We don't have the same one. And to which council of men are you referring, considering they approved different canons?

And was Hebrews placed in a biblical canon because a council of men said so, or because a council of men only recognized what GOD had already said so from the moment it was written and given to the first century church, long before any council?

You're avoiding the question with semantics. Call it a decision, a recognition, or whatever you want to call it. We're referring to the same thing, i.e. the human act of assembling the New Testament.

I'm not avoiding any question, let alone arguing semantics. My response was highlighting the fact that it was by no church "authority" or her act of "assembling" anything that the first century Christians recognized the written word of God. The writings themselves were self-authenticating in that they had or were directly tied to original apostolic authorship, which the first century Christians were able to confirm directly. By the word of the apostles, Jesus himself validated their word as directly coming from God.

The "authority" of later church councils in "assembling" those writings was firmly based on the witness of the first century Christians, not by any "authority" of those first century Christians. By extension, there was no authority inherent in the later church councils in declaring divine inspiration in those writings or in any new writings or traditions; rather, they only had the responsibility to correctly preserve and protect the divinely inspired writings already recognized and received, the ability to do so being passed to them in direct line of succession starting from Jesus, to the apostles, through the witness of the first century Christians, and every Christian guided by the Holy Spirit thereafter. The church councils were only one part of the chain in God's plan to preserve his word for the world for all time. They only responded to the real authority behind the canon, they were not authorities in of themselves.

Then the question remains, how do we know the councils got it right? I won't belabor the point, but your explanation is insufficient for reasons already mentioned.
Mothra
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Coke Bear said:

Mothra said:


I am surprised at how badly you and Sam are completely missing the point, my Catholic friend. Using historical (or call them extra-biblical, if you will) sources to confirm the authenticity/accuracy of scripture, and saying that teachings/doctrine from extra biblical sources (especially those that are not mentioned or contradict scripture) you would call "tradition" are on par with scripture or should be taught are two completely different things.

You're analogy is essentially comparing apples to bowling balls, it's so far off.

Take away the analogy if you'd like (even though all Catholic Church's teachings do have a biblical basis - protestants just don't except them, but that's beside the point.)

The point is that sola scriptura is self-refuting when one cannot use scripture to prove which books belong to the bible.

The bible never makes the claim that is it the ONLY sole rule of faith.

So, in other words, you're attempting to do exactly what Busty said in the post above yours, as I suspected.

We certainly disagree on your first sentence.
Mothra
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Coke Bear said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:


Rooted in their argument about the infallible canon is their claim for an infallible authority to authenticate their unbiblical traditions. They need to establish that the same authority behind the canon is the same authority behind their traditions. You claim authority for the canon, you claim authority to add anything you want to what the original apostles taught. That's how you get from the gospel of grace.... to a gospel of works, an insufficient divine sacrifice requiring sacraments and purgatory to make man "right" with God, and even giving Mary credit for our salvation.

You are half correct here.

You are COMPETELY incorrect about the Church's traditions being unbiblical. They are ALL biblical, you just don't accept them.

The part that you are correct about is the fact that the Church does have the infallible authority to discern canon and that means that Scripture is NOT the ONLY sole infallible rule.

This frightens you so much. Because it shatters your false believe in sola scriptura. And if that is false (which it is), it destroys your whole made-up theology.


Difficult to accept traditions that are not mentioned or even suggested in scripture, my friend.

We've been over them, but the idea that purgatory, the veneration of Mary, baptism being necessary for salvation (among others) - none of these are rooted (much less mentioned) in scripture.
4th and Inches
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Mothra said:

Coke Bear said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:


Rooted in their argument about the infallible canon is their claim for an infallible authority to authenticate their unbiblical traditions. They need to establish that the same authority behind the canon is the same authority behind their traditions. You claim authority for the canon, you claim authority to add anything you want to what the original apostles taught. That's how you get from the gospel of grace.... to a gospel of works, an insufficient divine sacrifice requiring sacraments and purgatory to make man "right" with God, and even giving Mary credit for our salvation.

You are half correct here.

You are COMPETELY incorrect about the Church's traditions being unbiblical. They are ALL biblical, you just don't accept them.

The part that you are correct about is the fact that the Church does have the infallible authority to discern canon and that means that Scripture is NOT the ONLY sole infallible rule.

This frightens you so much. Because it shatters your false believe in sola scriptura. And if that is false (which it is), it destroys your whole made-up theology.


Difficult to accept traditions that are not mentioned or even suggested in scripture, my friend.

We've been over them, but the idea that purgatory, the veneration of Mary, baptism being necessary for salvation (among others) - none of these are rooted (much less mentioned) in scripture.

Mark 16:15-20
New International Version
15 He said to them, "Go into all the world and preach the gospel to all creation. 16 Whoever believes and is baptized will be saved, but whoever does not believe will be condemned.

Matthew 28:19-20
New International Version
19 Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, 20 and teaching them to obey everything I have commanded you. And surely I am with you always, to the very end of the age."


He commanded them to go forth and baptize. If it wasnt essential, why does multiple writings state its importance?

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Doc Holliday
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This has got to stop. The high church Protestants are dabbling in this at an alarming rate, along with many non denominationals.



Prime example why we must have an authority outside of scripture. Hermeneutics gone crazy. These people are literally convinced that scripture tells them this is righteous.
Mothra
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4th and Inches said:

Mothra said:

Coke Bear said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:


Rooted in their argument about the infallible canon is their claim for an infallible authority to authenticate their unbiblical traditions. They need to establish that the same authority behind the canon is the same authority behind their traditions. You claim authority for the canon, you claim authority to add anything you want to what the original apostles taught. That's how you get from the gospel of grace.... to a gospel of works, an insufficient divine sacrifice requiring sacraments and purgatory to make man "right" with God, and even giving Mary credit for our salvation.

You are half correct here.

You are COMPETELY incorrect about the Church's traditions being unbiblical. They are ALL biblical, you just don't accept them.

The part that you are correct about is the fact that the Church does have the infallible authority to discern canon and that means that Scripture is NOT the ONLY sole infallible rule.

This frightens you so much. Because it shatters your false believe in sola scriptura. And if that is false (which it is), it destroys your whole made-up theology.


Difficult to accept traditions that are not mentioned or even suggested in scripture, my friend.

We've been over them, but the idea that purgatory, the veneration of Mary, baptism being necessary for salvation (among others) - none of these are rooted (much less mentioned) in scripture.

Mark 16:15-20
New International Version
15 He said to them, "Go into all the world and preach the gospel to all creation. 16 Whoever believes and is baptized will be saved, but whoever does not believe will be condemned.

Matthew 28:19-20
New International Version
19 Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, 20 and teaching them to obey everything I have commanded you. And surely I am with you always, to the very end of the age."


He commanded them to go forth and baptize. If it wasnt essential, why does multiple writings state its importance?




Important and essential to salvation are two very different things. There is no verse that say it's essential to salvation. Indeed, the thief on the cross wasn't baptized, yet was with Christ in paradise.

Baptism is the outward sign of the inward transformation. But god doesn't require some ministerial act for one to be saved. That is against the nature of God.
Mothra
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Doc Holliday said:

This has got to stop. The high church Protestants are dabbling in this at an alarming rate, along with many non denominationals.



Prime example why we must have an authority outside of scripture. Hermeneutics gone crazy. These people are literally convinced that scripture tells them this is righteous.


Such a silly and illogical argument. Some "Protestant" (whatever that loose definition means to you) twists scripture to fit his agenda and you think that means extra-scriptural documents are now necessary to prevent this.

If heretics are willing to do this with scripture, what makes you think they won't do that with extra-biblical sources?

Just silly.
Coke Bear
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Mothra said:


So, in other words, you're attempting to do exactly what Busty said in the post above yours, as I suspected.

We certainly disagree on your first sentence.
BDT's greatest fear is presented in his post.

An infallible book has to have an infallible authority to determine what is canon.

How did the early Church choose which books to include? Who gave them the authority to choose Mark and Hebrews and not 1 Clement and the Didache?
BusyTarpDuster2017
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Doc HollidayYes that's all that canonization means, recognizing what scripture comes from God. You'e just stating that God knows what scripture comes from Him as if that knowledge was written down and given to us, which it wasn't. said:

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There were Christians pushing gnostic scripture early on. They thought it came from God, but they were wrong.
The Church debated on whether Hebrews, James and Revelation were legit or not. Many Christians said no.
If no authoritative judgment took place, then no one could say the gnostics were wrong or that Hebrews and Revelation belong in Scripture. But Christians do say that because the early Church settled the matter on the basis of apostolic authority.

The New Testament you use was recognized by the same Church you claim has no authority. There's no way around this. The moment you admit that some Christians were wrong and the Church had to resolve the dispute, you've already conceded authoritative canonization.

"Canonization" is an ecclesial act of man, who being fallible, may or may not correctly recognize the true canon, which is from God. We both agree that God's word is his word the moment it's written, NOT when it's declared to be so by man. You're not being honest with the implications of this. It clearly means that man does not have the "authority" to determine canon, only the responsibility to recognize and receive it. It is God that is the authority behind the canon. Let's start there - do you agree with this?

You can't move from "this happened" to "this must be binding" without a normative authority to bridge the gap.

We're talking solely about a book's status as being inspired by God.

You're moving from a descriptive claim about what happened (God's word when written) to a normative claim about what must be accepted, without explaining what bridges that gap.

I've told you what bridges that gap many times already. If we believe in the apostles' testimony, that Jesus died and rose from the dead, it means he is Lord. And the Lord told us what is the canon himself. I'd say that's a pretty solid basis for what must be accepted. Any "authority" of man that doesn't listen to Jesus is only making man's bible, not God's.

When in history did our Lord tell us what the canon is? How did he tell us what scripture belonged in the New Testament? Is that written down?

Are you not paying any attention to anything I'm saying? Am I talking to a wall?

You said "the Lord told us what is the canon himself".

I'm asking you to point out when and how that took place.

If the canon is to contain only the divine inspired word of God, then Jesus told us what that is. I've already shown you where. If you want to give men the authority to declare what that is instead of Jesus, then you're following the fallible canon of man, not the infallible canon of God.

So the 27 books in the New Testament in the Bible you own just happen to match the Church's testimony about which writings count as apostolic and inspired?

Yes, to their "testimony" as to the accurate history and preservation of the self-authenticating word of the apostles, as affirmed by the first-hand witness of the first century church - NOT through any inherent "church authority" to decide on its authentication and declare it as such.

"Testimony" is a much more accurate conceptualization of the canon process than "authority". There was only ONE authority over Scripture - the knowledge of which has been passed down in time fully preserved, through man's "testimony" rather than man's "authority".

You keep insisting on "testimony" instead of "authority," as if renaming the act somehow changes what's happening. It doesn't. If testimonies conflict, which they did on a tremendous level, someone must judge which testimony is true, which is false, and which is rejected. That act is authority in function, whether you like the word or not.

Jesus never defined the Trinity, Scripture never lists a Nicene formulation, and early Christians violently disagreed about it. By your logic (testimony without authority) why is Nicene Trinitarianism, that you hold to, binding rather than just the view that survived historically?



"Testimony" was YOUR word.

It's not changing what's happening, but what's happening is not an act of "authority" - rather, what the church did was formally recognize what was already known and practiced widely among the body of believers, knowledge which was received in a line of "testimonies" in succession from one preceding generation to the next, all of which traced back to the very first Christians who could directly authenticate the apostolicity of the writings in question. There was already a recognized and circulated canon among the churches that included the Gospels and the apostles' letters by the end of the first century resulting from this process.

The role of the church through its formal councils in the 4th century and beyond, was another link in that chain of testimony. Their decisions were fully subject to and dependent on the reliable testimony of those preceding them, in the same way that our understanding of the canon is dependent on the reliable transmission of that reliable testimony from those church councils which preceded us. In each link, the "decision" over the truthfulness or falseness of the preceding link's assessment has to be made. If you call this "authority", then every link in the chain can claim "authority" over succeeding links with regard to the canon. This would even subject the authority of the original apostles to the first Christians who had to "decide" the truthfulness of what they were saying. This makes the "authority" concept meaningless. Thus, the concept of "testimony" is a far better and more accurately reflects the mechanism behind the formulation of the canon.

Case in point: the Council of Trent dogmatized a canon that differed from canons approved by previous ecumenical church councils. So even within Roman Catholicism itself, a "decision" over what was true/false from their own previous councils was made, with the false being rejected

I'm curious as to the basis of your claim that the testimonies conflicted on a "tremendous level". There was hardly any doubt as to the apostolicity and hence divine authority of the Gospels, the Acts, and all of the apostles' writings.

Jesus never defined the Trinity - but the concept of the Trinity is supported scripturally, which Jesus DID define, and that's the basis for believing in it - NOT because a church council declared it. What the church councils declare must ALWAYS be weighed against the standard, which is Scripture. That's sola scriptura.
Coke Bear
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Mothra said:

Difficult to accept traditions that are not mentioned or even suggested in scripture, my friend.

We've been over them, but the idea that purgatory, the veneration of Mary, baptism being necessary for salvation (among others) - none of these are rooted (much less mentioned) in scripture.

Purgatory - 1 Cor 3:11-15 -
For no one can lay any foundation other than the one already laid, which is Jesus Christ. If anyone builds on this foundation using gold, silver, costly stones, wood, hay or straw, their work will be shown for what it is, because the Day will bring it to light. It will be revealed with fire, and the fire will test the quality of each person's work. If what has been built survives, the builder will receive a reward. If it is burned up, the builder will suffer loss but yet will be savedeven though only as one escaping through the flames.

Veneration of Mary - Luke 1:48 -
For he has looked with favor on the humility of his handmaid. For behold, from this time, all generations shall call me blessed.

Baptism necessary for salvation - 1 Pet 3:21 -
And baptism, which this prefigured, now saves younot as a removal of dirt from the body, but as an appeal to God for a good conscience, through the resurrection of Jesus Christ,

Just a side note on Baptism being salvific ... this belief is also held by Lutherans, Anglicans/Episcopalians, some Church of Christ, Presbyterians, and Methodist. It's not just an Orthodox/Catholic belief. The rejection of this is generally held by the Calvinist/Baptists/Evangelicals.

These simple passages demonstrate that your claim that these beliefs are not "rooted (much less mentioned) in scripture" is not correct. You and other refuse to except the Catholic claim.

If your claim was "I see that they may be mentioned in scripture, but I don't accept your interpretation" I could understand that. (I stand by my interpretations) But the proposed statement would be more intellectually honest.

All of these beliefs predate the so-called reformers by more than 1000 years.

Finally, we've discussed these topics ad nauseum. I'm happy to discuss any of them again, individually; however, the topic at hand is Sola Scriptura.
Doc Holliday
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Mothra said:

Doc Holliday said:

This has got to stop. The high church Protestants are dabbling in this at an alarming rate, along with many non denominationals. We're talking at least 80M people who buy into this.



Prime example why we must have an authority outside of scripture. Hermeneutics gone crazy. These people are literally convinced that scripture tells them this is righteous.


Such a silly and illogical argument. Some "Protestant" (whatever that loose definition means to you) twists scripture to fit his agenda and you think that means extra-scriptural documents are now necessary to prevent this.

If heretics are willing to do this with scripture, what makes you think they won't do that with extra-biblical sources?

Just silly.
Nothing silly about this whatsoever. This is taking over whole churches. You should have great concern for the souls that follow this dogma.

All Protestants have abandoned apostolic succession for their own authority. That's a fundamental characteristic of all Protestants. There's absolutely nothing to stop them from thinking "We now understand Scripture differently".

We've got entire Protestant bodies like the United Methodist Church and the Anglican Communion that have been able to officially reverse historic Christian moral teaching without claiming new revelation, but by appealing instead to "new understanding," "lived experience," or "the spirit of the age."
None of these bodies claimed fresh revelation…they all appealed to reinterpretation under modern moral frameworks; every Protestant church is capable of engaging in this and many have. We're talking at least 80M members collectively in these churches alone.

In the Orthodox Church, authority isn't generated by the present. It's received from the past. Truth isn't produced by committee, it's guarded through apostolic continuity, conciliar reception for centuries, and sacramental life. Bishops and clergy don't possess authority in themselves, they hold it conditionally, as long as they remain faithful to what the Church has received. When bishops promoted Arianism, iconoclasm etc. they were deposed, anathematized, or excommunicated on the basis that the Church cannot conform Christ to the spirit of the age. That's why Orthodoxy is the most conservative. Any secular or woke fires in the Orthodox Church will be extinguished and universally recognized as illegitimate.
BusyTarpDuster2017
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Coke Bear said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:


Rooted in their argument about the infallible canon is their claim for an infallible authority to authenticate their unbiblical traditions. They need to establish that the same authority behind the canon is the same authority behind their traditions. You claim authority for the canon, you claim authority to add anything you want to what the original apostles taught. That's how you get from the gospel of grace.... to a gospel of works, an insufficient divine sacrifice requiring sacraments and purgatory to make man "right" with God, and even giving Mary credit for our salvation.

You are half correct here.

You are COMPETELY incorrect about the Church's traditions being unbiblical. They are ALL biblical, you just don't accept them.

The part that you are correct about is the fact that the Church does have the infallible authority to discern canon and that means that Scripture is NOT the ONLY sole infallible rule.

This frightens you so much. Because it shatters your false believe in sola scriptura. And if that is false (which it is), it destroys your whole made-up theology.


We don't accept your arguments that your traditions are biblical, because they are all complete non sequitur eisegetical nonsense, as has been repeatedly shown throughout this and many other threads. Shall we demonstrate it again here? Show how the assumption of Mary is biblical. Show how icon veneration is biblical. Then explain how your church has an "infallible authority to discern canon", when we have to ask, "WHICH of your canons?" Because your church has approved different canons in different ecumenical councils, and then contradicted those canons at the Council of Trent. "Infallible" indeed.

And it needs to be asked: WHERE are we told that your church has this supposed infallibility to discern the canon? Where and when did God say this? In Scripture? If that's your claim, then your "authority" is mired in a circular argument fallacy.

"Frightened"? The only thing that frightens me is how deep in deception you Roman Catholics are. The only "made up theology" here is the one that has abandoned the sole infallible authority of Scripture while claiming infallibility for themselves, which has directly led to the bowing and praying to images of Mary, naming churches after her, going to her for salvation, and crediting her for it. This is such a PAINFULLY OBVIOUS and egregiously wicked heresy and idolatry even to the most ignorant and baby Christian, that it only reveals the depth of your deception. There is simply no explanation for not being able to discern it, other than the fact that you just aren't a true Christian. WAKE UP. This is your fair warning.
BusyTarpDuster2017
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Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Doc Holliday said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

You're picking a fight where there isn't one. The canon is the canon. My question is why.

Catholics believe the Bible is inerrant on matters of faith and morals, not necessarily science, history, etc. (though I believe it's more historically accurate than many realize).

Why won't you, CokeBear, Doc, or Florida answer my question? It was really simple:

When did a writing become the word of God - right as it was being written, or only after it was deemed so by an authority of men?

I think we all know why you guys completely avoided this question.

When it was written, obviously. My question to you is, how do we know it's the word of God? Authorship by an Apostle, though of prime importance, is neither sufficient nor necessary.

So then it's GOD that decides the canon, not man, correct?

And I've already answered your question about the apostles - repeatedly. You really should stop trying to play games.

God decided what was inspired. Men decided what was in the Bible. "Canon" really refers to the latter. It can't mean both the biblical canon and some hypothetical canon.

"Faith in the testimony of the Apostles" doesn't fully answer the question, if only because not all of the canon was written by Apostles. Even if you take what you call their testimony as the sole standard, you still have the problem of determining what that testimony is. Some books of doubtful origin were included, while others were excluded. At some point you're always relying on a judgment.

If God decided what was his inspired word, and the canon is the writings which are the inspired word of God, then God literally decided the canon. Man's responsibility is only to recognize it and receive it. Therefore, there is no "authority" of man that "decided" the canon. This is an incorrect framing that reflects a misconception of what the canon is and means.

We know we have the original apostles' writings through the first hand witness (NOT "authority") of the first century church. We are relying not on their "judgement", but rather on their actual knowledge as to the authenticity and reliability of the apostolicity of these writings. Writings of questionable authorship today, such as the book of Hebrews, were authored during the time of the first century church (Hebrews was written around 67 AD) so the first century Christians KNEW where these writings came from and they clearly considered them authoritative, strongly suggesting apostolic authorship (e.g. Paul for Hebrews, John for Revelation). And since we know the first century church has given us the witness to the actual words of the apostles, and we believe the word of the apostles, then we believe their word that these were Jesus' actual words:

"the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, he will teach you [the apostles] all things and bring to your remembrance all that I have said to you." - Jesus, in John 14:26

"As you sent me into the world, so I have sent them into the world... I do not ask for these only, but also for those who will believe in me through their word" - Jesus, in John 17:18,20


This means the word of the apostles to the church was the inspired word of God for his church, i.e. the canon. It all starts at the beginning with our faith in Jesus Christ through the word of the apostles. The canon reveals itself from there.



Ok I see why you're not making sense. This is just historically false.

If first century Christians actually knew with certainty which writings were apostolic, there would not have been centuries long disputes over Hebrews, James, 2 Peter, Jude, and Revelation, nor persistent regional disagreement between the Eastern and Western churches, nor major Church Fathers rejecting books that other Fathers accepted, nor a closed New Testament canon only emerging through ecclesial consensus in the late fourth century.

You said: "Hebrews was written around 67 AD) so the first century Christians KNEW where these writings came from"
That's not accurate whatsoever. The early Church did not know who wrote Hebrews, explicitly debated its authorship, and ultimately accepted it despite that uncertainty through ecclesial discernment.

Here's the question, though, tying it to the previous point - did Hebrews become the word of God because a council of men said so.... or because GOD said so, and used his Holy Spirit to guide his church to recognize and receive it? You've already kinda answered this, but it's worth reminding you of this point, because it should disavow you of any notion that it was by the authority of man that we have the book of Hebrews in the canon.

Well, that really depends on what you mean by "the canon."

You mean it depends on what you mean by "the canon".

I mean the recognized biblical canon. Did Hebrews become a book of the Bible the moment it was written, or because a council of men said so?

Which "recognized biblical canon"? We don't have the same one. And to which council of men are you referring, considering they approved different canons?

And was Hebrews placed in a biblical canon because a council of men said so, or because a council of men only recognized what GOD had already said so from the moment it was written and given to the first century church, long before any council?

You're avoiding the question with semantics. Call it a decision, a recognition, or whatever you want to call it. We're referring to the same thing, i.e. the human act of assembling the New Testament.

I'm not avoiding any question, let alone arguing semantics. My response was highlighting the fact that it was by no church "authority" or her act of "assembling" anything that the first century Christians recognized the written word of God. The writings themselves were self-authenticating in that they had or were directly tied to original apostolic authorship, which the first century Christians were able to confirm directly. By the word of the apostles, Jesus himself validated their word as directly coming from God.

The "authority" of later church councils in "assembling" those writings was firmly based on the witness of the first century Christians, not by any "authority" of those first century Christians. By extension, there was no authority inherent in the later church councils in declaring divine inspiration in those writings or in any new writings or traditions; rather, they only had the responsibility to correctly preserve and protect the divinely inspired writings already recognized and received, the ability to do so being passed to them in direct line of succession starting from Jesus, to the apostles, through the witness of the first century Christians, and every Christian guided by the Holy Spirit thereafter. The church councils were only one part of the chain in God's plan to preserve his word for the world for all time. They only responded to the real authority behind the canon, they were not authorities in of themselves.

Then the question remains, how do we know the councils got it right? I won't belabor the point, but your explanation is insufficient for reasons already mentioned.

Apparently, Roman Catholicism has declared that their own previous councils did NOT get it right. Their official canon, dogmatized in the Council of Trent, contradicts many of their canons which were approved in previous councils.

So, I think your question needs to be asked of your own church.

I've already told you MY answer. Why you continually want to go in a circle as if that is helping your case, I'm not sure.
BusyTarpDuster2017
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Doc Holliday said:



Prime example why we must have an authority outside of scripture. Hermeneutics gone crazy. These people are literally convinced that scripture tells them this is righteous.

Sooo ironic.....
Mothra
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Coke Bear said:

Mothra said:

Difficult to accept traditions that are not mentioned or even suggested in scripture, my friend.

We've been over them, but the idea that purgatory, the veneration of Mary, baptism being necessary for salvation (among others) - none of these are rooted (much less mentioned) in scripture.

Purgatory - 1 Cor 3:11-15 -
For no one can lay any foundation other than the one already laid, which is Jesus Christ. If anyone builds on this foundation using gold, silver, costly stones, wood, hay or straw, their work will be shown for what it is, because the Day will bring it to light. It will be revealed with fire, and the fire will test the quality of each person's work. If what has been built survives, the builder will receive a reward. If it is burned up, the builder will suffer loss but yet will be savedeven though only as one escaping through the flames.

Veneration of Mary - Luke 1:48 -
For he has looked with favor on the humility of his handmaid. For behold, from this time, all generations shall call me blessed.

Baptism necessary for salvation - 1 Pet 3:21 -
And baptism, which this prefigured, now saves younot as a removal of dirt from the body, but as an appeal to God for a good conscience, through the resurrection of Jesus Christ,

Just a side note on Baptism being salvific ... this belief is also held by Lutherans, Anglicans/Episcopalians, some Church of Christ, Presbyterians, and Methodist. It's not just an Orthodox/Catholic belief. The rejection of this is generally held by the Calvinist/Baptists/Evangelicals.

These simple passages demonstrate that your claim that these beliefs are not "rooted (much less mentioned) in scripture" is not correct. You and other refuse to except the Catholic claim.

If your claim was "I see that they may be mentioned in scripture, but I don't accept your interpretation" I could understand that. (I stand by my interpretations) But the proposed statement would be more intellectually honest.

All of these beliefs predate the so-called reformers by more than 1000 years.

Finally, we've discussed these topics ad nauseum. I'm happy to discuss any of them again, individually; however, the topic at hand is Sola Scriptura.


We've been over these verses. I won't repeat all discussed but the first verse isn't referring to baptism. The others do not say baptism is essential. Indeed no verses say that and Christ is clear that faith alone is all that is necessary.

Saying those verses support your position and those verse actually supporting your position are two very different things. I don't believe any reasonable person would read those verses, especially in context with christs words, and hold as you do. It's just not an intellectually honest position.

And no, all of those other denoms do not hold baptism is essential. That's not accurate
BusyTarpDuster2017
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Coke Bear said:

Mothra said:

Difficult to accept traditions that are not mentioned or even suggested in scripture, my friend.

We've been over them, but the idea that purgatory, the veneration of Mary, baptism being necessary for salvation (among others) - none of these are rooted (much less mentioned) in scripture.

Purgatory - 1 Cor 3:11-15 -
For no one can lay any foundation other than the one already laid, which is Jesus Christ. If anyone builds on this foundation using gold, silver, costly stones, wood, hay or straw, their work will be shown for what it is, because the Day will bring it to light. It will be revealed with fire, and the fire will test the quality of each person's work. If what has been built survives, the builder will receive a reward. If it is burned up, the builder will suffer loss but yet will be savedeven though only as one escaping through the flames.

Veneration of Mary - Luke 1:48 -
For he has looked with favor on the humility of his handmaid. For behold, from this time, all generations shall call me blessed.

Baptism necessary for salvation - 1 Pet 3:21 -
And baptism, which this prefigured, now saves younot as a removal of dirt from the body, but as an appeal to God for a good conscience, through the resurrection of Jesus Christ,

Just a side note on Baptism being salvific ... this belief is also held by Lutherans, Anglicans/Episcopalians, some Church of Christ, Presbyterians, and Methodist. It's not just an Orthodox/Catholic belief. The rejection of this is generally held by the Calvinist/Baptists/Evangelicals.

These simple passages demonstrate that your claim that these beliefs are not "rooted (much less mentioned) in scripture" is not correct. You and other refuse to except the Catholic claim.

If your claim was "I see that they may be mentioned in scripture, but I don't accept your interpretation" I could understand that. (I stand by my interpretations) But the proposed statement would be more intellectually honest.

All of these beliefs predate the so-called reformers by more than 1000 years.

Finally, we've discussed these topics ad nauseum. I'm happy to discuss any of them again, individually; however, the topic at hand is Sola Scriptura.

- your "purgatory" verse has nothing to do with a purgatory. More non sequitur eisegetical nonsense.

- Mary shall be called "blessed" - NOT called "Mediatrix", "Advocate", "Helper", "THE ALL HOLY ONE", "peacemaker between sinners and God", "sovereign", "the road to salvation", etc.

- If water baptism saves, then the Eucharist is not required for salvation, which goes against your beliefs and literal interpretation of Jesus' words.
Coke Bear
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Mothra said:


We've been over these verses. I won't repeat all discussed but the first verse isn't referring to baptism. The others do not say baptism is essential. Indeed no verses say that and Christ is clear that faith alone is all that is necessary.

John 3:5 - Unless one if born of water and spirit, he cannot enter the Kingdom of God
Matt 16:16 - Whoever believes and is baptized will be saved, ..."

Sounds like Jesus really meant what he said. Please find an early source with supports your claim.

Mothra said:

Saying those verses support your position and those verse actually supporting your position are two very different things. I don't believe any reasonable person would read those verses, especially in context with christs words, and hold as you do. It's just not an intellectually honest position.
You're statemen was that those beliefs are NOT "rooted (much less mentioned) in scripture". I have demonstrated that they are rooted in scripture. You don't accept the interpretations. I merely stated that your point was incorrect and provided a better statement that we could possibly agree upon. You have chosen to stick to your guns.


Mothra said:

And no, all of those other denoms do not hold baptism is essential. That's not accurate
Please forgive my inclusion of the Presbyterians and Methodists. I was misremembering there.

Irrespective, more than 60% of Christians today, believe that it is salvific. It's not just a Catholic/protestant debate.
Coke Bear
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BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Coke Bear said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:


Rooted in their argument about the infallible canon is their claim for an infallible authority to authenticate their unbiblical traditions. They need to establish that the same authority behind the canon is the same authority behind their traditions. You claim authority for the canon, you claim authority to add anything you want to what the original apostles taught. That's how you get from the gospel of grace.... to a gospel of works, an insufficient divine sacrifice requiring sacraments and purgatory to make man "right" with God, and even giving Mary credit for our salvation.

You are half correct here.

You are COMPETELY incorrect about the Church's traditions being unbiblical. They are ALL biblical, you just don't accept them.

The part that you are correct about is the fact that the Church does have the infallible authority to discern canon and that means that Scripture is NOT the ONLY sole infallible rule.

This frightens you so much. Because it shatters your false believe in sola scriptura. And if that is false (which it is), it destroys your whole made-up theology.


We don't accept your arguments that your traditions are biblical, because they are all complete non sequitur eisegetical nonsense, as has been repeatedly shown throughout this and many other threads. Shall we demonstrate it again here? Show how the assumption of Mary is biblical. Show how icon veneration is biblical. Then explain how your church has an "infallible authority to discern canon", when we have to ask, "WHICH of your canons?" Because your church has approved different canons in different ecumenical councils, and then contradicted those canons at the Council of Trent. "Infallible" indeed.

And it needs to be asked: WHERE are we told that your church has this supposed infallibility to discern the canon? Where and when did God say this? In Scripture? If that's your claim, then your "authority" is mired in a circular argument fallacy.

"Frightened"? The only thing that frightens me is how deep in deception you Roman Catholics are. The only "made up theology" here is the one that has abandoned the sole infallible authority of Scripture while claiming infallibility for themselves, which has directly led to the bowing and praying to images of Mary, naming churches after her, going to her for salvation, and crediting her for it. This is such a PAINFULLY OBVIOUS and egregiously wicked heresy and idolatry even to the most ignorant and baby Christian, that it only reveals the depth of your deception. There is simply no explanation for not being able to discern it, other than the fact that you just aren't a true Christian. WAKE UP. This is your fair warning.

Assumption of Mary - Rev 11:19 - 12:2,5

Then God's temple in heaven was opened, and within his temple was seen the ark of his covenant. And there came flashes of lightning, rumblings, peals of thunder, an earthquake and a severe hailstorm.

A great sign appeared in heaven: a woman clothed with the sun, with the moon under her feet and a crown of twelve stars on her head. She was pregnant and cried out in pain as she was about to give birth.... She gave birth to a son, a male child, who "will rule all the nations with an iron scepter."

Notice that John is discussing the Ark which is in Heaven. The original arc is still hidden on earth in a cave somewhere. The Ark (of the New Covenant) is Mary, who is now in heaven. The next passage directly links the her/the Ark to the Woman in Heaven who is pregnant with the child that will rule with an iron scepter (Psalms 2:9 - a fullfilment of the messianic prophesy.)

Venerations of Icons - Numbers 21:8 -

Then the Lord said to Moses, "Make a fiery serpent, and set it on a pole; and it shall be that everyone who is bitten, when he looks at it, shall live."

These aren't the topic at hand, it's sola scriptura.

Which can't prove itself as the ONLY sole rule of faith. Someone has got to determine what was canon and what wasn't.

Waco1947
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BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Waco1947 said:

It means that it's GOD that decides on and gives the canon, NOT man. This is your misconception. Man does not have the "authority" to "decide" the canon. The canon exists before man recognizes it or knows it's there. Their responsibility is to recognize it correctly and receive it. ......How do you know this?



It's known because it's a logical truth based on what is a true, agreed upon principle, that a writing is the word of God the moment it's written, not because man declares it to be.

The only way you can say it's NOT known, is to say that a writing can become the word of God simply by man's word, thereby putting man above God. And that is utter blasphemy.

Ok, I get the logic, but who says that a particular writing was the word of God at its beginning? To me, that's still a human decision.
Coke Bear
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BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

- your "purgatory" verse has nothing to do with a purgatory. More non sequitur eisegetical nonsense.
Augustine of Hippo in the 4th century disagrees with you.

"That there should be some fire even after this life is not incredible, and it can be inquired into and either be discovered or left hidden whether some of the faithful may be saved, some more slowly and some more quickly in the greater or lesser degree in which they loved the good things that perish, through a certain purgatorial fire."

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:


- Mary shall be called "blessed" - NOT called "Mediatrix", "Advocate", "Helper", "THE ALL HOLY ONE", "peacemaker between sinners and God", "sovereign", "the road to salvation", etc.
The bible does not address the use of titles given to Mary. Many refer to James as "James, the Just" or "the Righteous", which isn't biblical.

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:


- If water baptism saves, then the Eucharist is not required for salvation, which goes against your beliefs and literal interpretation of Jesus' words.
Another strawman argument in your post. Your post constantly refuses to comment on ACTULLY Catholic beliefs. Baptism is part of the initial salvation. The Eucharist is reserved for those who are already baptized.

Why do your posts constantly attempt to mislead people? It is so difficult for you to refute the ACTUAL Catholic position, not just a strawman view or opinion.

 
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