TexasScientist said:
BusyTarpDuster2017 said:
TexasScientist said:
BusyTarpDuster2017 said:
TexasScientist said:
Oldbear83 said:
TexasScientist said:
Sam Lowry said:
TexasScientist said:
Sam Lowry said:
TexasScientist said:
Sam Lowry said:
Waco1947 said:
There were hundred of manuscripts copied - each with a translation to the writers prerogative.
As I said in OP
"In fact, when the books of the bible were finally gathered together into one printable volume, starting with Johann Gutenberg back in the 1500's, publishing houses began to compete with one another. One of the sales points they used in pushing their particular product was to say, "Our bible is the word of God" (as opposed to what our competition is printing). As time went by people simply accepted that as fact, rather than understanding that the bible is simply words about God that the Church collected together and declared "sacred scripture," even though even the main branches of Christianity haven't even agreed upon a single list of books that should be included to this very day!"
The canon was assembled and recognized as the word of God more than 1,000 years before Gutenberg.
All assembled (NT), recognized and written as the words of God 100's of years later by politically appointed men. Seems to me to be the words of men from the minds of men.
They were written 20 to 50 years after Christ's death, give or take a few years in some cases.
Only pieces and fragments of writings by unknown authors, except for some of Paul's letters, with no complete versions until late second century at best.
You say second century like it's a bad thing. The earliest copy of Julius Caesar doesn't appear until a thousand years after his death. By any ordinary standard, the NT is the most reliable set of ancient texts you're going to find. Why fear using the ordinary standard?
I don't think you can make the statement that they are the most reliable set of ancient texts. You don't know that, and even if you could make the statement they are more reliable than other texts, that doesn't translate to them being reliable.
Yes actually, we can say the Scriptures are the most reliable, due to centuries of scrutiny from experts from every age. Only when rejection of religion became a popular assumption, replacing objective analysis, has the authenticity of Scripture ever been doubted.
In simple terms, Scripture has been tested and examined far more rigorously than any other ancient documents, from any time or place. It therefore has earned confidence as reliable on the strength of such examination.
It's through scrutiny and textual criticism their reliability is called into question. All you have is pieces and fragments of early copies until well over 100 years after the fact. And those fragments were not contemporaneous to the time they were writing about. It's not until years later that you have what's purported to be a complete copy of anything, and even those are not the same. They are copies of copies of copies etc.There are discrepancies, errors, omissions and additions. You even have other gospels and acts that are written, some of which almost made cannon. There is nothing reliable about who Jesus was or claimed to be other than possibly in broad generalities. This problem continues right on up to today, where you have the Book of Mormon claimed by some as reliable scripture.
Are you joking? It is through textual criticism that the reliability of the New Testament is solidified! Textual criticism of the NT has revealed that about 99.5% of what we have as the NT today is textually pure, meaning it is the same as the earliest original manuscripts. If you doubt that what was recorded is what actually happened, then you are questioning its accuracy, not reliability. And you are basing that on assumption, not anything scientific, I might add.
Regarding the reliability of the NT:
Copies of the original manuscripts were not done in linear fashion, where one copy was made, then a copy of the copy, and so on. In this fashion, errors can be compounded, and the reliability would definitely suffer. But what we have with the NT, rather, is that copies of the original were made geometrically: from one original, 5 copies were made, then 5 copies of each of those 5 were made, etc.
Because of this, the amount of manuscript evidence for the NT dwarfs that of other ancient, historical texts, and so its textual criticism can be very rigorous and precise. There are over 5300 manuscripts of the NT, compared to the closest non-biblical ancient text, Homer's Illiad, which has only 647 existing copies. Also, to your point about the earliest biblical manuscripts being 100's of years after the fact- this is the closest compared to all other ancient texts. Caesar's Gallic Wars and Herodotus' History exist in only a handful of manuscripts that date over a 1000 years after the fact. Josephus and Tacitus survive in only a handful of manuscripts 500 years or so after the fact.
The results of NT textual criticism has revealed that only 2% of the New Testament manuscript evidence have discrepancies. And it is important to note, that most all of these errors are simple spelling, punctuation, and grammatical errors. And even more importantly, NONE of the errors have any doctrinal significance.
So... we can most certainly say that the New Testament we have today is reliable.
Quote:
Are you joking? It is through textual criticism that the reliability of the New Testament is solidified! Textual criticism of the NT has revealed that about 99.5% of what we have as the NT today is textually pure, meaning it is the same as the earliest original manuscripts. If you doubt that what was recorded is what actually happened, then you are questioning its accuracy, not reliability. And you are basing that on assumption, not anything scientific, I might add.
No, I'm not joking. The copies we have were all written years after the originals. It's precisely through textural criticism and outright observation the errors, omissions, changes and additions from one copy to the next have been revealed. There thousands of copies, and virtually none are the same. There are minor scriveners errors, there are major differences, some of which affect actual meaning and may have doctrinal implications.The copies, linear and geometric all reveal errors, omissions, changes and additions. You cannot deny this. There are many textual scholars who have written extensively on this subject. It wasn't until the printing press came about that the final version(s) (yes versions because there were various competing ones) began to be settled. It is precisely through textual criticism that many of the major additions and changes have been exposed. This cannot be denied. It is for these reasons that no one can know what the originals actually said, and it is for these reason that they cannot be relied upon as the original text. There simply is no way to know the original text. The Trinity, virgin birth, and being born again are prime examples of potential doctrinal issues.
Again....
Textual criticism has revealed a 99.5% textual purity of the New Testament. You can't get around that.
Yes, textual criticism revealed errors, omissions, changes, additions... only 0.5% of the time. And the vast majority of those errors are insignificant to the meaning of the text- spelling, punctuation, grammatical errors.
Apparently, you are taking these minor errors to qualify your statements like: "There thousands of copies, and virtually none are the same." No, none are EXACTLY the same. If two sentences differ by a single spelling error, then they are not the same. You also said, "The copies, linear and geometric all reveal errors, omissions, changes and additions. You cannot deny this." No, I do not deny it. It's in agreement with what I said- there are errors, but the vast majority are insignificant. The game you are playing here is amateurish.
Of those that are significant changes, omissions, or additions, there is a lot of debate about them, but again, none significantly affect essential doctrine. The Comma Johannes regarding the trinity in 1 John is not the only doctrinal support of the Trinity in the bible. Regarding the virgin birth and being born again, I do not know of the textual variation that you are referring to that changes these doctrines. If you are referring to how the word "almah" is translated in Matthew as it relates to the prophecy of Isaiah- it does mean "virgin". If you are referring to how "born again" is translated- "born again" is correct. But these are issues of translation, not textual criticism.
The fact is, due to the extensive volume of manuscripts we have of the New Testament, we can perform textual criticism with a high degree of precision. Detecting major differences only ADDS to the strength and validity of textual criticism. Your statement, "There simply is no way to know the original text" is just plain false. That is exactly what the science of textual criticism does.
You have a mistranslation of the word for young woman to virgin. You have the word born again, which is a play on words in Greek. We know Jesus didn't say that because he most likely spoke Aramaic and not Greek. That same play on words doesn't work in Aramaic. So we know it is unlikely Jesus said you must be born again the way the story is relayed. These are two known discrepancies that are revealed through textual criticism. There are many scholars who have written and published about these discrepancies and others. The fact that we don't have purported complete copies until over a century after the fact, tells us there is no way to know exactly what the original author wrote. You can say the may approximate the original in some ways, but we know things were added and things were left out from one copy to the next. And in the case of the Gospels, and some of the Pauline letters, we don't even know who wrote the originals. There simply is no way to know the accuracy and reliability of their contents.
I second what JXL said, and I'd like to add my two cents here:
For the benefit of those who may be reading all these, this is the crux of what TS is saying about the "born again" phrase in the gospel of John, which is an argument straight from Bart Ehrman: When Jesus tells Nicodemus he must be "born again", Nicodemus misunderstands this to mean a physical re-birth, but Jesus was speaking of a spiritual one. This confusion arises
only because the Greek word for "
again" can also mean "
from above", and Nicodemus is thinking of the first meaning, while Jesus was using the second. This is the "play on words" that is being referred to, a double entendre.
So, the argument goes that since neither Jesus nor Nicodemus were speaking Greek, but rather Aramaic, this kind of double entendre could not have been said by Jesus. Therefore, this conversation between the two could not have happened.
But this conclusion is ridiculous. Nicodemus' confusion of "born again" could have easily been the result of Jesus saying "born again" or "born a second time" in Aramaic as well, with Jesus meaning a second, spiritual birth, but Nicodemus only thinking in terms of a physical one. The confusion is not necessarily predicated
ONLY on there being a double entendre arising from the Greek word, and it doesn't take a language expert to see this. When this conversation was translated into Greek, the writer either was using this specific Greek word for "again" or "second time" because, well, that's what Jesus SAID, so it was an accurate translation, or, the writer used the opportunity to use the double meaning of the word as a literary technique, and therefore chose this word over other Greek words that mean "again" but without the double meaning. To say that it is
conclusive, that this conversation must
NOT have happened, simply because of one particular framework from which you choose to view it, is the kind of narrow-minded, deceptive, sloppy logic that Ehrman likes to employ in order to cast doubt on the reliabilty and authenticity of the Gospels. And it's the kind of thing that people who already have it in their minds to reject the Gospels, eat up.
We know that later in the gospel of John, while on the cross Jesus gives the duty to care for Mary, his mother, to John. It is not a stretch to say that during Jesus' burial, that since undoubtedly Mary would be there, that John would be there also. The gospel also says that Nicodemus was there as well. It is not implausible, therefore, that John and Nicodemus spoke with each other then, and often thereafter. John could have heard Nicodemus' recounting of the whole conversation between him and Jesus, and decided to record an account of it, to the best of his recollection, under the guidance of the Holy Spirit, which Jesus said would help them remember all things that had happened. Could have there been a missed word or two? Could the writer have used his own literary license to convey what happened? Absolutely. But to say that since the
exact wording was not recorded and preserved, or that the writer took the liberty to add things for literary effect or to convey a certain meaning, that the conversation did not happen at all or that we don't have any idea what the essential message Jesus was teaching, is an egregious over-assumption and incredibly arrogant.
I wanted to say more, about the virgin birth, but I've gone too long, and I've run out of time, so I will have to address that tomorrow.