"if you have to deduce it via reason, then it is not in Scripture" - this makes absolutely no sense.DallasBear9902 said:BusyTarpDuster2017 said:A priori means it can be deduced from pure reason alone. The syllogism I presented does exactly that. Sorry, you're the one flailing here. You evidently understood nothing of what I wrote. Your understanding of a priori is suspect as well. Your last sentence makes absolutely no sense.DallasBear9902 said:You are flailing both in form and substance. It would be easier to admit that you should not have used the phrase a priori, but I don't think you are capable of that....Instead you choose to dig a deeper hole.BusyTarpDuster2017 said:Here is your misunderstanding: it is an a priori truth because it is based purely on this logic, simply stated:DallasBear9902 said:You struggle with words and ideas. Here is what you said on 5/23/25 at 2:57 central. You can find your own words and your own post (with my emphasis added).:BusyTarpDuster2017 said:The empirical, observed evidence that sola scriptura is based on is the resurrection of Jesus Christ. That put a stamp on his authority as being from God. He in turn, put his stamp of authority on his disciples: "But the Helper, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, he will teach you all things and bring to your remembrance all that I have said to you." *Therefore*, the word of the original apostles is the direct, infallible word of God. *And since* all the church has in its possession that is the word of the original apostles is in Scripture, then the only thing that can serve as the infallible rule of faith is Scripture.DallasBear9902 said:BusyTarpDuster2017 said:Too bad no one ever said that.DallasBear9902 said:If that is unbelievable to you wait until you hear this one:BusyTarpDuster2017 said:The Roman Catholic position is correct, because official Roman Catholic sources say so?FLBear5630 said:Is that list attached to your Keys?BusyTarpDuster2017 said:I don't know what question you have in mind, but the real question was this: given that the historical evidence shows that a majority of patristic writers did NOT view Peter as the "rock" of Matthew 16, then isn't it true that the view that Peter was the "rock" was NOT what the Catholic church "constantly" and "always" believed as the Roman Catholic Church claims?Coke Bear said:The lovely Marisa Tomei demonstrates it very well,BusyTarpDuster2017 said:No, it isn't an answer to my question. Good grief.Coke Bear said:That is a clear answer to your supposed question. If someone else doesn't think so, please let me know.BusyTarpDuster2017 said:If you won't answer the question, don't you see you're only proving that I'm right?Coke Bear said:I believe 100% in the word of Jesus that Peter IS the rock that Christ established His Church, in light of your "evidence."BusyTarpDuster2017 said:
Please FOCUS. I didn't ask what YOU think the primary reading shows, I asked whether you agree that the belief that Peter was the "rock" was NOT a constant belief of the early church, given the historical evidence I just provided?
1) Jesus literally said it. The prima facie reading proves that. I go with Jesus here.
2) I've provided 1st & 2nd century evidence from Clement, Ignatius, and Irenaeus that the Church in Rome had primacy and a list of the original bishops of Rome from Peter forward.
3) I will also listen to the magisterium which has proclaimed this for nearly 2000 years. It has been practiced and believed for this entire period.
Finally, I do reject what a 20th/21st century scholar has claimed, especially when I have not read the greater context his statement was made.
I'll trust Jesus. He said so.
Is there ONE Roman Catholic out there who will discuss this with me honestly? Please, just ONE??
Question for you, when did you stop betting your wife?
If ANY one (protestant or Catholic) feels that I did sufficiently answer the "question" with my beliefs, please let me know. I sincerely mean that.
Your question was phrased in the same vein as "when did you stop betting your wife?"
If anyone feels that your answer, which was telling me that YOU personally believe Peter was the "rock", is an actual answer to that question, then they can please let me know, too. And then I can add them to the clueless list.
By the way, you are so full of **** it is pathetic. You seem to get off on trying to undermine people's believes by throwing out cherrypicked infromation. Buy a Catechism it will explain every aspect of the Catholic faith. Here is a website in the Vatican. This is the Catholic Position which is correct, regardless of yoursadn Tammy Faye's thoughts
The Primacy of the Successor of Peter in the Mystery of the Church
I guarentee YOU have not found anything new.
Unbelievable.
Sola Scriptura is correct because people say it is.
That is what YOU said. You said Sola Scriptura is reasoning based on theoretical deduction. A theoretical assumption based on deduction. Not based on empirical evidence or observation.
In other words, that it is true because you say it is.
You really aren't good at understanding words, ideas and concepts. A proper Catholic education would have helped you in this regard.
This is not a "theoretical deduction". It's quite revealing that you would call Jesus' resurrection a "theory". If this is what results from a "proper Catholic education", then thanks for the suggestion, but I think I'll pass.a priori: adj. relating to or denoting reasoning or knowledge which proceeds from theoretical deduction rather than from observation or experience; adv; in a way based on theoretical deduction rather than empirical observation.Quote:
Sola scriptura is an a priori, logical truth.
Even if you prefer a more church centric definition of apriori, here you go:
From what is before, that is, from cause to effect. Reasoning from principles to conclusions, or from prior knowledge to consequences; therefore deduction. A basic premise of Catholic morality in reducing general norms to specific practice.
So, in three posts about Sola Scriptura you go from (paraphrased for simplicity):
1. it is a [logical deduction].
2. Nobody ever said [it is a logical deduction].
3. It is is not a [logical deduction], but BTD is going to use (faulty) deductive logic to establish that it is true.
(Hint: when you use words like "therefore" & "and since" as in your post on 5/24/25 at 1:20 am central, you are using a crude form of deductive logic. You are using certain premises that are not explicitly revealed in the Bible to arrive to a conclusion. Your postings make it clear that you hate it when the Catholic Church does this, but here you find yourself. I have italicized and added asterisks to your usage for ease of reference in the quote above.)Let A = infallible, "God-breathed", direct word of God
- If quality A is in B;
- and B is the only thing we know for sure in existence that has quality A;
- then all things need to be measured against B for us to know if it has quality A
Let B = Scripture
This is the logic I was referring to. It is pure logic, and does not proceed from observation or experience. It is true in of itself. However, you responded by saying that the "reasoning behind sola scriptura is BASED on theoretical deduction". That's saying something different, in my mind. The BASIS of the reasoning is in the truth of the first two premises. But because BOTH Protestants and Catholics already agree on it's truth (I documented this and starred it in another comment as the starting point for all my logic in ths discussion about sola scriptura) the premises are accepted as true, and the logical conclusion (sola scriptura) proceeding from it is a priori truth. However, the BASIS of the truth of sola scriptura comes from premises actually being true to begin with - which is not a priori truth but proceeds from actual, historical, observed experience, i.e. the resurrection of Jesus.
To put it simply, the reasoning behind sola scriptura, between us Protestants and Catholics, is a priori logic because we accept the truth of the premises. However, the BASIS of the reasoning behind sola scriptura is in the actual truth of the premises, which is based on historical truth (observed experience, i.e. the resurrection of Jesus).
Pedantic enough for ya? If that's where you wanna go, then I can accomodate. I knew it might be an issue to make logical statements when you Catholics forget that the agreed upon starting point is in the infallibility of Scripture, which is why I made the effort to document it.
Form: By definition, an a priori, a logical deduction, is derivative of the premises and exists apart from the premises, otherwise it does not have to be deduced. Hence, sola scriptura, which you correctly maintain is an a priori, is already violating its very principle of sola scriptura.
You are really bad at this.. the irreconocible problem between citing "a priori" as justification for the idea of sola scriptura is not the "reason" part; the problem is the ***deduced*** part. Anything deduced by definition is derivative and not included in the original premises. If you have to deduce it via reason then it is not in scripture. So sola scriptura is not coming from the Bible but from your reasoning. You seem to really hate it when the Catholic Church does that, but I guess you don't mind doing it. You've backed yourself into a corner and you are flailing.
"So sola scriptura is not coming from the Bible but from your own reasoning" - begging the question, circular argument. You're already assuming the truth that sola scriptura must come from the Bible in order to be valid.
I call ^^^this "flailing".
