first American pope

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BusyTarpDuster2017
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Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

St. John Chrysostom (c. 347 AD), the highly influential and prolific Archbishop of Constantinople, named a Doctor of the Catholic Church (an honor only 37 people in church history have) on Peter's confession, not Peter himself, being the the "rock" of Matthew 16:
Quote:

"And I say unto thee, Thou are Peter, and upon this rock I will build my Church': that is, on the faith of his confession." (NPNF Vol. 10, p. 333)

"(Jesus) speaks from this time lowly things, on His way to His passion, that He may show His humanity. For He that has built His church upon Peter's confession, and has so fortified it, that ten thousand dangers and deaths are not to prevail over it…" (NPNF Vol. 10, p. 494)
Chrysostom, on Peter not being the only one having the "keys", but the apostle John having them as well:
Quote:

"For the son of thunder, the beloved of Christ, the pillar of the Churches throughout the world, who holds the keys of heaven, who drank the cup of Christ, and was baptized with His baptism, who lay upon his Master's bosom, with much confidence…" (NPNF Vol. XIV, p. 1)

St. John Chrysostom, like all Catholics, believed Peter was the Rock because of the faith of his confession. The two are not mutually exclusive.
Where does he say this?

And you can't say that he believed that Peter was the only one with the "keys".
Coke Bear
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BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

- Jesus and his apostles never "used" the Septuagint. They used the canonical books within the Septuagint. Again, I don't know how it'll every get into your head, but the Septuagint contained BOTH canonical AND non-canonical books. Quoting the canonical books doesn't magically turn the non-canonical books into the canonical just because they were included in the volume. That'd be like the "foreword" of the Trump Bible written by Trump being considered part of Biblical canon because it was in that volume.
You call them non-canonical, but they are deuterocanonical. {Please state your evidence that Jesus and the disciples did NOT use the Septuagint despite the fact that:

1: During the time of Jesus, Green was the widely spoken language across the Mediterranean region. The Greek translation, Septuagint, was widely commonly used among Greek-speaking Jews.

2: NT Quotes most of the NT quotes more closely align to the Septuagint than the Hebrew Masoretic Text. Obviously suggesting that they were familiar with the Septuagint.

3: Hellenistic Jewish Influence: Jewish communities outside of Palestine (Alexandria, Egypt) primarily used the Septuagint. This influence extended back to Israel.

4: ACTS - The early Church frequently encountered Greek-speaking Jews (Acts 6:1)

5: Early Church Writings Many Church Fathers reference the Septuagint in their writings.


BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

- Yes, the Jewish people closed their canon. They "laid up" in the Temple the books that they deemed canonical (their Tanakh), and they correspond exactly to the books of the Old Testament. NONE of the apocryphal books were laid up in the Temple. The historian Josephus names these books that were "laid up", and the number of those books was closed. Philo of Alexandria agrees. So does the Talmud. So did Pseudoepigraphical writings like 2 Esdras (4 Ezra) written in 100 AD. Aquila who translated the Hebrew scriptures into Greek in 128 AD agrees.
Thanks for proving my point! The JEWISH canon was NOT settled before Jesus died. It was closed several generations after. The Deuterocanon, from which the Jews get Hanukkah, and referenced in John 10, is still celebrated today by all Jews around the world.

Like I said, the JEWISH canon was closed. I go with what Jesus, disciples, and the early Church used, which was the Septuagint.

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Origen and Epiphanius said that the Jews rejected the apocrypha.
Yes, by those Jews near him, but he NEVER listed his Canon. He recognized the value of the DT and cited them in his work.

Epiphanius also never listed a canon. He NEVER rejected the DT. He acknowledges the DT and recognizes its utility.

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

So did Jerome. So did the majority of all church fathers, theologians, and scholars from the time of Jerome up until the 1500's. The earliest known bible canons (Melito's canon, Bryennios' list) did not contain the apocrypha. Even the apocryphal book of 1 Maccabees said that there was no prophet in all of Israel, including him. The grandson of the author of Ecclesiasticus said the Hebrew canon was complete before he wrote. And if all of that isn't good enough for you, JESUS himself said he came to fulfill all of the Law, Prophets, and Writings - nothing about the apocrypha. If Jesus considered the canon closed, then so should you.
In what book say that Jesus says that the canon was closed? Also, Ecclesiasticus NEVER explicitly says that canon was closed. The canon during this time was still fluid.

Remember, Jerome may have not accepted the Deuterocanon, but he nevertheless translated ALL of the 46 books into Latin giving us our current Latin Vulgate in obedience to the Church. The Church accepted the DT as CANON.

It was the Catholic Church (with the guidance of the Holy Spirit) that determined the canon. It took centuries before the book of James was accepted as canonical. It was the Catholic Church that determined that James was canonical. It wasn't fully accepted as canonical until the Council of Hippo (393 AD) and Council of Carthage (429 AD). That's a LONG time.

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

- The creation account does not have historical errors. That's a really dumb argument.
Was the mankind literally created on the 6th day? Most scientist agree that light didn't even exist until 380,00 YEARS after the Big Bang. They also state that the Earth didn't form until 4.6 billon years ago. Scientists also state that the earth is 13.8 billion years old. Man (according to scientist) came onto the earth 200,000 years ago. How can this be if man was created on the 6th day?

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

- Jesus never used any themes from the apocrypha. Rather, the apocrypha used themes from the Hebrew canon, and Jesus used themes from that same Hebrew canon. That doesn't mean Jesus was referring to the apocrpha. Another really bad argument.
Really Jesus emphasized wisdom and righteousness in his parables. This is scene in Wisdom and Sirach.

Sirach and Tobit emphasis justice for the poor and the acts of mercy. Jesus' compassion, serving others, and social justice are themes that Jesus echoed.

Faithfulness and Divine Providence are shown in Tobit and Judith. God's providence and faithfulness are paralleled in Jesus' teachings.

Martyrdom and Suffering in 2 Maccabees are certain shown in Christ's passion.


BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

- Doesn't it scare you that you are adding books that JESUS didn't consider as canon?
Given the fact that Pope Damasus I, at the Council of Rome in 382, endorsed the full 73-book canon of the Bible, when do you argue that Catholics were "adding books" to the Bible? Were the Deuterocanonical books in the first addition of the KJV?
Coke Bear
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BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Who's asking you to trust ME? You should trust Jesus as to what he thinks is canon.
Please cite the Book, Chapter, and Verse where Jesus OR anyone else lists the specific books of the Bible.

Jesus never said that the Laws, Profits, and Writings are the ONLY writings. You are reading into the text (again.)

He says in Luke 24:44

He said to them, "This is what I told you while I was still with you: Everything must be fulfilled that is written about me in the Law of Moses, the Prophets and the Psalms."

Both Wisdom and Sirah contain typology as wisdom being a prefigurement of Christ.

2 Maccabees contain discussions of martyrdom and resurrection, foreshadowing NT teachings on resurrection of the dead and the eternal rewards for those who remain faithful unto death.

The other books do contain themes such as deliverance, righteous suffering, and God's faithfulness.

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

I don't ignore any Church father. The church fathers were still fallible men, and they had varied beliefs on things like baptism, the Eucharist, eternal security, etc. That's why what they say has to be measured against infallible Scripture. But you are the one claiming unanimity among church fathers to bolster the claim that the Roman Catholic church today is the same church since Jesus, with the "ancient and constant" faith that "always believed" what you currently believe today. Church history isn't kind to this claim, so YOU and your church HAS to ignore the early church fathers. Want proof? NO ONE wants to admit that the Roman Catholic claim that the "ancient and constant" faith that was "always" believed" was that Peter was the "rock" of Matthew 16 and that he alone was given the keys, isn't true given the clear evidence from church history. So what say you?
No one has ever claimed that the Church fathers were infallible or that they had a complete consensus on all topics.

According to the history of BDT17, when did the Catholic Church start, who was the first pope, and how did you determine those dates?
FLBear5630
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BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

FLBear5630 said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

BearFan33 said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

BearFan33 said:

FLBear5630 said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

FLBear5630 said:

ShooterTX said:

Been away for awhile.
Don't have time right now to read everything here.

Had anyone addressed the 2nd commandment, and why it's missing from the catholic version of the 10 commandments?
I have heard Catholics defend this by saying that the 2nd is just part of the law against false gods... so it's redundant and doesn't need to be included. That seems lie a very weak excuse for eliminating something that God spoke. Why do Catholics need to edit God?
Is it because God specifically says not to bow down to graven images?
Exodus 20:4-5 NIV
[4] "You shall not make for yourself an image in the form of anything in heaven above or on the earth beneath or in the waters below. [5] You shall not bow down to them or worship them; for I, the Lord your God, am a jealous God, punishing the children for the sin of the parents to the third and fourth generation of those who hate me,

Of course the Catholics say that they don't bow down or worship the images of Mary, but...

https://www.facebook.com/story.php?story_fbid=pfbid02ACJAiPbXqGojMeBDRvrS3P9YeSmj4EmwUGNUiAZaihTRTzTHYg85CwFD9PKMdpgMl&id=100068429748592

https://images.app.goo.gl/oN3ZKQssSKUy1EUAA

https://images.app.goo.gl/jiEa5fZ3dDHwhZec6

https://images.app.goo.gl/zXYjFmtm1edKd2sE8

But hey.... no prayers, bowing or worship to an image going on here, right?

The Catechism 2112 addresses the 1st Commandment and idolatry.

The Catholic Church uses St Augustine's numbering of the 10 Commandments. You know him, the guy earlier in the thread you guys were saying was the authority on either Mary, Sola Scriptura or one of the Protestant believes. It changes depending on the subject which ones any of us believe.

If I remember correctly Lutherans and Catholics use St Augustine, Catholic Orthodox and Protestants use Origen's version. They differ. We won't agree that the Catechism addresses it in 2112, as the Catholics and Protestants haven't for 1500 years.

My understanding is the difference lies in whether you are worshiping God or a false God. Once again, we won't agree.

So, do we want to continue to fight the Reformation? It will pretty much go as it has for 1500 years and the last 2 weeks. Both sides say something, the other side says they are wrong. The question is do we want to go to insults or skip that part?
Good Lord - what does the numbering of the Ten Commandments have to do with the fact that Roman Catholics are breaking the one about idols??
Idolatry
2112 The first commandment condemns polytheism. It requires man neither to believe in, nor to venerate, other divinities than the one true God. Scripture constantly recalls this rejection of "idols, (of) silver and gold, the work of men's hands. They have mouths, but do not speak; eyes, but do not see." These empty idols make their worshippers empty: "Those who make them are like them; so are all who trust in them."42 God, however, is the "living God"43 who gives life and intervenes in history.

2113 Idolatry not only refers to false pagan worship. It remains a constant temptation to faith. Idolatry consists in divinizing what is not God. Man commits idolatry whenever he honors and reveres a creature in place of God, whether this be gods or demons (for example, satanism), power, pleasure, race, ancestors, the state, money, etc. Jesus says, "You cannot serve God and mammon."44 Many martyrs died for not adoring "the Beast"45 refusing even to simulate such worship. Idolatry rejects the unique Lordship of God; it is therefore incompatible with communion with God.46

2114 Human life finds its unity in the adoration of the one God. the commandment to worship the Lord alone integrates man and saves him from an endless disintegration. Idolatry is a perversion of man's innate religious sense. An idolater is someone who "transfers his indestructible notion of God to anything other than God."47


There you go, that is what Catholics believe, we do not believe in idolatry. Like it or not.
Copilot's thoughts.....

The key to understanding why Catholics praying to Mary and the saints is not considered idol worship lies in the distinction between worship and veneration in Catholic theology.

1. Worship vs. Veneration
  • Worship (latria) is due to God alone. It involves adoration and is reserved for the Holy TrinityFather, Son, and Holy Spirit.
  • Veneration (dulia) is the honor given to saints. It's a form of deep respect, not worship.
  • Hyperdulia is a special veneration given to Mary because of her unique role as the Mother of God, but it still falls short of worship.
2. Role of Saints and Mary
Catholics believe that:
  • Saints are friends of God who are alive in heaven and can intercede (pray) for us.
  • Asking a saint to pray for you is similar to asking a friend or family member to pray for you.
  • Mary, as the mother of Jesus, holds a special place and is seen as a powerful intercessor.
3. Biblical and Historical Roots
  • Catholics point to passages like Revelation 5:8 and Revelation 8:3-4, which depict the saints in heaven offering prayers to God.
  • The practice of honoring saints dates back to the early Church, where martyrs were remembered and their intercession sought.
4. No Divine Power Attributed
  • Catholics do not believe that Mary or the saints have divine power on their own.
  • All grace and miracles come from God; saints are simply channels through whom God may act.
Summary
So, in Catholic understanding:
  • Praying to Mary or the saints is not idol worship because it's not worship at all.
  • It's a request for intercession, not an act of adoration.
  • Worship is reserved for God alone.

Can an honest person truly believe there is no act of adoration of Mary, when they bow to and kiss statues of Mary, pray to her, sing hymns of her in church, hold numerous festivals in her honor throughout the year, have pictures and statues of her all over their house, and have prayers of her which call her "sovereign", "ruler of my house", "peacemaker between sinners and God", "Mediatrix", "god of this world", "our hope and refuge", and they "place their salvation in her hands"?? How is any of this not divinization of Mary?

Can an honest person truly say this isn't worship and idolatry?


Sounds like Some people go overboard

If you ask them who's boss I'm sure the sane Catholics would say "God"

No, not just "some" people - all this is fully endorsed by their Magisterium, and thus defines the entire Roman Catholic Church. Catholics believing that the boss is "God" is of no credit to them - the demons believe the same (James 2:9).
And Catholics can't understand how you go to Church without communion each week or believe they don't need confession. It is beyond me to why even go? You guys act like Bible Study is the same as celebrating the sacrament of communion. It is really unbelievable.
Christians can confess to Jesus directly, they don't need priests. There is nothing in Scripture that says communion needs to be held each week. Christian churches are free to decide when and how often. Jesus cares about our hearts, not what certain rites and rituals we carry out. If one has a heart of worship during Bible study, it is just as pleasing to God as performing communion. Even if a Christian lives way out nowhere, and he doesn't do communion in a church, but every time he eats his meal he remembers what Jesus did for him ("do this in remembrance of me") and he is thankful to Jesus with all his heart, then Jesus is just as pleased. God is not impressed with all the pomp and circumstance of rituals in expensive church buildings, he loves a thankful, humble heart that truly seeks him.


More power to you. That is your belief and you are comfortable.. it brings you closer and you believe you are following God's word in good faith. No one is taking that from you.

Please provide Catholics the same courtesy. No Catholic goes into Church to get one over on God. Or doesn't believe they are following God's will.

But you won't.... You will continue to call balls and strikes as if YOU are the cosmic umpire.
BusyTarpDuster2017
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Coke Bear said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

- Jesus and his apostles never "used" the Septuagint. They used the canonical books within the Septuagint. Again, I don't know how it'll every get into your head, but the Septuagint contained BOTH canonical AND non-canonical books. Quoting the canonical books doesn't magically turn the non-canonical books into the canonical just because they were included in the volume. That'd be like the "foreword" of the Trump Bible written by Trump being considered part of Biblical canon because it was in that volume.
You call them non-canonical, but they are deuterocanonical. {Please state your evidence that Jesus and the disciples did NOT use the Septuagint despite the fact that:

1: During the time of Jesus, Green was the widely spoken language across the Mediterranean region. The Greek translation, Septuagint, was widely commonly used among Greek-speaking Jews.

2: NT Quotes most of the NT quotes more closely align to the Septuagint than the Hebrew Masoretic Text. Obviously suggesting that they were familiar with the Septuagint.

3: Hellenistic Jewish Influence: Jewish communities outside of Palestine (Alexandria, Egypt) primarily used the Septuagint. This influence extended back to Israel.

4: ACTS - The early Church frequently encountered Greek-speaking Jews (Acts 6:1)

5: Early Church Writings Many Church Fathers reference the Septuagint in their writings.
You are continuing to fail to understand the concept: the Septuagint contained BOTH canonical and non-canonical writings. Simply quoting from or referencing the canonical part does not magically convert the non-canonical part into canon. This would be like saying someone quoting from Trump's bible would automatically make Trump's writing in the foreword part of the Bible.

The primary (definitive) evidence that Jesus or his apostles did NOT use the apocryphal texts, is that they never quoted from them.

I will post all the historical and factual evidence again, which you apparently glossed over:
  • The Jews "laid up" in the Temple the books that they deemed canonical (their Tanakh). NONE of the apocryphal books were laid up in the Temple.
  • The historian Josephus names these books that were "laid up", and the number of those books correspond to the number in the Old Testament. No apocryphal books.
  • Philo of Alexandria agrees.
  • So does the Talmud.
  • So did Pseudoepigraphical writings like 2 Esdras (4 Ezra) written in 100 AD.
  • Aquila who translated the Hebrew scriptures into Greek in 128 AD agrees.
  • Origen and Epiphanius said that the Jews rejected the apocrypha.
  • Jerome held that the apocrypha were NOT CANON.
  • So did the majority of all church fathers, theologians, and scholars from the time of Jerome up until the 1500's.
  • The earliest known bible canons (Melito's canon, Bryennios' list) did NOT contain the apocrypha.
  • 1 Maccabees even says that there was no prophet in all of Israel, including the author.
  • The grandson of the author of Ecclesiasticus said the Hebrew canon was complete before he wrote.
  • JESUS himself told us the canon, when he said he came to fulfill all of the Law, Prophets, and Writings - nothing about the apocrypha.
BusyTarpDuster2017
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Coke Bear said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

- Jesus and his apostles never "used" the Septuagint. They used the canonical books within the Septuagint. Again, I don't know how it'll every get into your head, but the Septuagint contained BOTH canonical AND non-canonical books. Quoting the canonical books doesn't magically turn the non-canonical books into the canonical just because they were included in the volume. That'd be like the "foreword" of the Trump Bible written by Trump being considered part of Biblical canon because it was in that volume.
You call them non-canonical, but they are deuterocanonical. {Please state your evidence that Jesus and the disciples did NOT use the Septuagint despite the fact that:

1: During the time of Jesus, Green was the widely spoken language across the Mediterranean region. The Greek translation, Septuagint, was widely commonly used among Greek-speaking Jews.

2: NT Quotes most of the NT quotes more closely align to the Septuagint than the Hebrew Masoretic Text. Obviously suggesting that they were familiar with the Septuagint.

3: Hellenistic Jewish Influence: Jewish communities outside of Palestine (Alexandria, Egypt) primarily used the Septuagint. This influence extended back to Israel.

4: ACTS - The early Church frequently encountered Greek-speaking Jews (Acts 6:1)

5: Early Church Writings Many Church Fathers reference the Septuagint in their writings.


BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

- Yes, the Jewish people closed their canon. They "laid up" in the Temple the books that they deemed canonical (their Tanakh), and they correspond exactly to the books of the Old Testament. NONE of the apocryphal books were laid up in the Temple. The historian Josephus names these books that were "laid up", and the number of those books was closed. Philo of Alexandria agrees. So does the Talmud. So did Pseudoepigraphical writings like 2 Esdras (4 Ezra) written in 100 AD. Aquila who translated the Hebrew scriptures into Greek in 128 AD agrees.
Thanks for proving my point! The JEWISH canon was NOT settled before Jesus died. It was closed several generations after. The Deuterocanon, from which the Jews get Hanukkah, and referenced in John 10, is still celebrated today by all Jews around the world.

Like I said, the JEWISH canon was closed. I go with what Jesus, disciples, and the early Church used, which was the Septuagint.
How in the world does this prove your point? Good lord, what is wrong with your reading and comprehension?? Historians writing generations later weren't writing that the canon was closed in their time. They're writing that the canon had been closed in their history. WOW.

The Jews observe things in all their writings, the canonical AND non-canonical. Their observance of things in the non-canonical doesn't magically turn them into canon. You're using the same failed logic.

And again, you're repeating your failed argument that even though Jesus or his apostles NEVER quoted from the apocrypha, but because those books were translated into Greek just like the books of the canon, then it means that Jesus and his apostles viewed them as canon as well. Jesus and his apostles did not carry around a one volume book called the "Septuagint". They still used scrolls of individual books that they read in the Temple. Those individual books were books of their canon, apocrypha excluded.
BusyTarpDuster2017
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Coke Bear said:


BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Origen and Epiphanius said that the Jews rejected the apocrypha.
Yes, by those Jews near him, but he NEVER listed his Canon. He recognized the value of the DT and cited them in his work.

Epiphanius also never listed a canon. He NEVER rejected the DT. He acknowledges the DT and recognizes its utility.


- Citing them, or "recognizing their utility" doesn't mean they were canon. The Jews recognized the apocryphal books as useful, but they were NOT to be used for doctrine. This is the same view held by virtually everyone I mentioned.

- Epiphanius wrote:

"By the time of the captives' return from Babylon these Jews had acquired the following books and prophets, and the following books of the prophets: 1. Genesis. 2. Exodus. 3. Leviticus. 4. Numbers. 5. Deuteronomy. 6. The Book of Joshua the son of Nun. 7. The Book of the Judges. 8. Ruth. 9. Job. 10. The Psalter. 11. The Proverbs of Solomon. 12. Ecclesiastes. 13. The Song of Songs. 14. The First Book of Kings. 15. The Second Book of Kings. 16. The Third Book of Kings. 17. The Fourth Book of Kings. 18. The First Book of Chronicles. 19. The Second Book of Chronicles. 20. The Book of the Twelve Prophets. 21. The Prophet Isaiah. 22. The Prophet Jeremiah, with the Lamentations and the Epistles of Jeremiah and Baruch. 23. The Prophet Ezekiel. 24. The Prophet Daniel. 25. I Ezra. 26. II Ezra. 27. Esther. These are the twenty-seven books given the Jews by God. They are counted as twenty-two, however, like the letters of their Hebrew alphabet, because ten books which (Jews) reckon as five are double.hese are the twenty-seven books given the Jews by God. They are counted as twenty-two, however, like the letters of their Hebrew alphabet, because ten books which the Jews reckon as five are double" (The Panarion of Epiphanius of Salamis: Book I (Sects 1-46): Translated by Frank Williams (Leiden: Brill, 1994), p. 26.)

Historian Roger Beckwith states that even though Epiphanius listed "Epistles of Jeremiah and Baruch" above, he states that these were not considered canon by the Jews.
BusyTarpDuster2017
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Coke Bear said:



BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

So did Jerome. So did the majority of all church fathers, theologians, and scholars from the time of Jerome up until the 1500's. The earliest known bible canons (Melito's canon, Bryennios' list) did not contain the apocrypha. Even the apocryphal book of 1 Maccabees said that there was no prophet in all of Israel, including him. The grandson of the author of Ecclesiasticus said the Hebrew canon was complete before he wrote. And if all of that isn't good enough for you, JESUS himself said he came to fulfill all of the Law, Prophets, and Writings - nothing about the apocrypha. If Jesus considered the canon closed, then so should you.
In what book say that Jesus says that the canon was closed? Also, Ecclesiasticus NEVER explicitly says that canon was closed. The canon during this time was still fluid.

Remember, Jerome may have not accepted the Deuterocanon, but he nevertheless translated ALL of the 46 books into Latin giving us our current Latin Vulgate in obedience to the Church. The Church accepted the DT as CANON.

It was the Catholic Church (with the guidance of the Holy Spirit) that determined the canon. It took centuries before the book of James was accepted as canonical. It was the Catholic Church that determined that James was canonical. It wasn't fully accepted as canonical until the Council of Hippo (393 AD) and Council of Carthage (429 AD). That's a LONG time.
- In what book did Jesus say that the canon was open and fluid?
- I didn't say that Ecclesiaticus explicitly said the canon was closed, I said the author's grandson said it. But 1 Maccabees DOES explicitly state that including the author himself, there was no prophet in Israel. That excludes him, and all else written during his time, as being infallibly inspired by God.
- Jerome translated it, but he never accepted them as part of canon.
- the Catholic Church wasn't around when the Gospels and the Epistles of Paul, Peter, John, etc were already deemed as Scripture by the early church and being circulated among them. Peter calls Paul's writings "scripture" in his letter. The Catholic Church only ratified what was already accepted by the body of Christians. James was also accepted as scripture among many Christians, but it was debated.
william
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arbyscoin - the only crypto you can eat.
BusyTarpDuster2017
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Coke Bear said:



BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

- The creation account does not have historical errors. That's a really dumb argument.
Was the mankind literally created on the 6th day? Most scientist agree that light didn't even exist until 380,00 YEARS after the Big Bang. They also state that the Earth didn't form until 4.6 billon years ago. Scientists also state that the earth is 13.8 billion years old. Man (according to scientist) came onto the earth 200,000 years ago. How can this be if man was created on the 6th day?


Does "day" necessarily have to be a 24 hour period, given that the sun which governs the 24 hour day-night cycle wasn't created until day four? The Hewbrew word for "day" there is "yom" which can mean "an unspecified long period of time".

And is Genesis supposed to be read as historical fact?? Good grief, this argument is what atheists use!
BusyTarpDuster2017
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Coke BearBusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Quote:

- Jesus never used any themes from the apocrypha. Rather, the apocrypha used themes from the Hebrew canon, and Jesus used themes from that same Hebrew canon. That doesn't mean Jesus was referring to the apocrpha. Another really bad argument.
Really Jesus emphasized wisdom and righteousness in his parables. This is scene in Wisdom and Sirach.

Sirach and Tobit emphasis justice for the poor and the acts of mercy. Jesus' compassion, serving others, and social justice are themes that Jesus echoed.

Faithfulness and Divine Providence are shown in Tobit and Judith. God's providence and faithfulness are paralleled in Jesus' teachings.

Martyrdom and Suffering in 2 Maccabees are certain shown in Christ's passion.


BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

- Doesn't it scare you that you are adding books that JESUS didn't consider as canon?
Given the fact that Pope Damasus I, at the Council of Rome in 382, endorsed the full 73-book canon of the Bible, when do you argue that Catholics were "adding books" to the Bible? Were the Deuterocanonical books in the first addition of the KJV? ---> Evidently, then, at this time.

Are wisdom, righteousness, justice for the poor, acts of mercy, compassion, social justice, faithfulness, divine providence, martyrdom and suffering NOT in the Old Testament??

My God, is that really your argument??!!

Hey you know what, I also wrote about those things as well. Did I write Scripture??
FLBear5630
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william said:


Great picture.

My Mom and her side of my family were Eastern Rite, Russian Orthodox.
Coke Bear
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BusyTarpDuster2017 said:


You are continuing to fail to understand the concept: the Septuagint contained BOTH canonical and non-canonical writings. Simply quoting from or referencing the canonical part does not magically convert the non-canonical part into canon. This would be like saying someone quoting from Trump's bible would automatically make Trump's writing in the foreword part of the Bible.
The Septuagint makes NO distinction between the canon and the Deuterocanon that claim exists. You are drawing a line base on YOUR beliefs.

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

The primary (definitive) evidence that Jesus or his apostles did NOT use the apocryphal texts, is that they never quoted from them.
They You mean other than the FACT that more than 75% of the OT is word-for-word form the Septuagint. Of Paul's 98 scriptural quotations, 95 are exactly from the Septuagint.

You are running from this fact.

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

I will post all the historical and factual evidence again, which you apparently glossed over:
  • The Jews "laid up" in the Temple the books that they deemed canonical (their Tanakh). NONE of the apocryphal books were laid up in the Temple.
  • The historian Josephus names these books that were "laid up", and the number of those books correspond to the number in the Old Testament. No apocryphal books.
  • Philo of Alexandria agrees.
  • So does the Talmud.
  • So did Pseudoepigraphical writings like 2 Esdras (4 Ezra) written in 100 AD.
  • Aquila who translated the Hebrew scriptures into Greek in 128 AD agrees.
  • Origen and Epiphanius said that the Jews rejected the apocrypha.
  • Jerome held that the apocrypha were NOT CANON.
  • So did the majority of all church fathers, theologians, and scholars from the time of Jerome up until the 1500's.
  • The earliest known bible canons (Melito's canon, Bryennios' list) did NOT contain the apocrypha.
  • 1 Maccabees even says that there was no prophet in all of Israel, including the author.
  • The grandson of the author of Ecclesiasticus said the Hebrew canon was complete before he wrote.
  • JESUS himself told us the canon, when he said he came to fulfill all of the Law, Prophets, and Writings - nothing about the apocrypha.

I am not glossing over anything:

It has been established that there were several Jewish canons at during the lifetime of Christ.
Josephus (a Jew) wrote AFTER the time of Jesus as they were set to close the canon generations after Jesus' death.

Origen and Epiphanius -And? So what? The Jews that persecuted Jesus rejected them. Jesus and the disciples accepted the Deuterocanon.

Jerome this is complex because he only wanted to translate what the Jews had in Hebrew. He couldn't locate Hebrew copies of the DT, but he translated them anyway in OBDIENCE to the Church. What happened in 1947? We found Hebrew copies of some of the DT.

The grandson of the author of Ecclesiasticus NEVER says that the canon is CLOSED. He only states that the canon is authoritative and important for wisdom and instruction.

Jesus law, profits, and writings once again, did He explicitly say that these were the ONLY books in scripture?
Coke Bear
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BusyTarpDuster2017}How in the world does this prove your point? Good lord, what is wrong with your reading and comprehension?? Historians writing generations later weren't writing that the canon was closed in [i said:

their time. They're writing that the canon had been closed in their history. WOW.
Please go to Google and ask "When was the Jewish canon closed?" They will state that it was a gradual process that happened in the second century. I am willing to say (concede) that it was close during the Council of Jamnia in AD 90, nearly 60 years after Jesus' ascension.



BusyTarpDuster2017}The Jews observe things in all their writings, the canonical AND non-canonical. Their observance of things in the non-canonical doesn't magically turn them into canon. You're using the same failed logic.[/quote said:

I am going to what Jesus, his disciples, the early Church used as scripture used.

BusyTarpDuster2017}And again, you're repeating your failed argument that even though Jesus or his apostles NEVER quoted from the apocrypha, but because those books were translated into Greek just like the books of the canon, then it means that Jesus and his apostles viewed them as canon as well. Jesus and his apostles did not carry around a one volume book called the "Septuagint". They still used scrolls of individual books that they read in the Temple. Those individual books were books of their canon, apocrypha excluded.[/quote said:

The Deuterocanon was more widely used by Greek speaking Jews and early Christians. I'll side with them over the Pharisees that rejected Jesus as the Massiah.
Coke Bear
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BusyTarpDuster2017 said:


- In what book did Jesus say that the canon was open and fluid?
No. You implied that Jeus didn't accept the DT canon as scripture. Please back up that claim with a fact from history.
BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

- I didn't say that Ecclesiaticus explicitly said the canon was closed, I said the author's grandson said it. But 1 Maccabees DOES explicitly state that including the author himself, there was no prophet in Israel. That excludes him, and all else written during his time, as being infallibly inspired by God.
Maccabees are historical books. The author is not considered a prophet. The authors of 1 & 2 Samuel, 1 & 2 Kings, and1 & 2 Chronicles were not prophets. Neither were Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John.
BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

- Jerome translated it, but he never accepted them as part of canon.
As stated earlier, he bowed in obeisances to the Church. This issue was complex because he did see Jewish copies of these books, which were later found.
BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

- the Catholic Church wasn't around when the Gospels and the Epistles of Paul, Peter, John, etc were already deemed as Scripture by the early church and being circulated among them. Peter calls Paul's writings "scripture" in his letter. The Catholic Church only ratified what was already accepted by the body of Christians. James was also accepted as scripture among many Christians, but it was debated.
I asked you earlier, but you may have missed it …

When was the Catholic Church founded?
Who was the first Pope?
How do you make the determinations on both of these questions?
Coke Bear
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FLBear5630 said:

william said:


Great picture.

My Mom and her side of my family were Eastern Rite, Russian Orthodox.
Great pic. Hopefully the Churches will unit again.
Coke Bear
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Coke Bear said:

-Given the fact that Pope Damasus I, at the Council of Rome in 382, endorsed the full 73-book canon of the Bible, when do you argue that Catholics were "adding books" to the Bible? Were the Deuterocanonical books in the first addition of the KJV?

---> Evidently, then, at this time.
Well, this is the same time that the NT was ratified by the Church, so I suppose that you should accept the 46-book OT. Awesome! Welcome one step closer to the Truth of the Catholic Church! God Bless and Welcome Home! Please locate a Catholic Church near you and enroll in OCIA. Classes should start in September.
BusyTarpDuster2017
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Coke Bear said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:


You are continuing to fail to understand the concept: the Septuagint contained BOTH canonical and non-canonical writings. Simply quoting from or referencing the canonical part does not magically convert the non-canonical part into canon. This would be like saying someone quoting from Trump's bible would automatically make Trump's writing in the foreword part of the Bible.
The Septuagint makes NO distinction between the canon and the Deuterocanon that claim exists. You are drawing a line base on YOUR beliefs.
Neither does the Trump Bible make a distinction between Trump's foreword and the books of the Bible regarding their canonicity. Therefore Trump's foreword is part of the canon of the Bible. You would be drawing a line based on your beliefs.

See how stupid this argument is?
BusyTarpDuster2017
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Coke Bear said:


BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

The primary (definitive) evidence that Jesus or his apostles did NOT use the apocryphal texts, is that they never quoted from them.
They You mean other than the FACT that more than 75% of the OT is word-for-word form the Septuagint. Of Paul's 98 scriptural quotations, 95 are exactly from the Septuagint.

You are running from this fact.
There is no need to run from a fact that has no relevance whatsoever. Whatever percentage of the OT and NT that is word for word from their Greek translation in the Septuagint, that's the percentage they are word for word from their CANONICAL counterparts in the Septuagint.

This is how you're arguing: "since the Old and New Testament is virtually word for word with the Old and New Testaments in the Trump Bible, that means that Trump's foreword in the Trump Bible is also canon."

All your arguments stem from the ridiculously flawed reasoning that just because the canonical books of the Septuagint was used, it meant that all of the non-canonical books of the Septuagint were considered canon too. You can recycle/repeat this argument or some variant of it all you want, it just won't magically make it true.
BusyTarpDuster2017
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Coke Bear said:



BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

I will post all the historical and factual evidence again, which you apparently glossed over:
  • The Jews "laid up" in the Temple the books that they deemed canonical (their Tanakh). NONE of the apocryphal books were laid up in the Temple.
  • The historian Josephus names these books that were "laid up", and the number of those books correspond to the number in the Old Testament. No apocryphal books.
  • Philo of Alexandria agrees.
  • So does the Talmud.
  • So did Pseudoepigraphical writings like 2 Esdras (4 Ezra) written in 100 AD.
  • Aquila who translated the Hebrew scriptures into Greek in 128 AD agrees.
  • Origen and Epiphanius said that the Jews rejected the apocrypha.
  • Jerome held that the apocrypha were NOT CANON.
  • So did the majority of all church fathers, theologians, and scholars from the time of Jerome up until the 1500's.
  • The earliest known bible canons (Melito's canon, Bryennios' list) did NOT contain the apocrypha.
  • 1 Maccabees even says that there was no prophet in all of Israel, including the author.
  • The grandson of the author of Ecclesiasticus said the Hebrew canon was complete before he wrote.
  • JESUS himself told us the canon, when he said he came to fulfill all of the Law, Prophets, and Writings - nothing about the apocrypha.

I am not glossing over anything:

It has been established that there were several Jewish canons at during the lifetime of Christ.
Josephus (a Jew) wrote AFTER the time of Jesus as they were set to close the canon generations after Jesus' death.

Origen and Epiphanius -And? So what? The Jews that persecuted Jesus rejected them. Jesus and the disciples accepted the Deuterocanon.

Jerome this is complex because he only wanted to translate what the Jews had in Hebrew. He couldn't locate Hebrew copies of the DT, but he translated them anyway in OBDIENCE to the Church. What happened in 1947? We found Hebrew copies of some of the DT.

The grandson of the author of Ecclesiasticus NEVER says that the canon is CLOSED. He only states that the canon is authoritative and important for wisdom and instruction.

Jesus law, profits, and writings once again, did He explicitly say that these were the ONLY books in scripture?

- There was not "several" Jewish canons during the lifetime of Christ. You're recycling the same defeated point from other threads. If you want to rehash your same argument and see it get shot down again, then be my guest.

- You just don't have any evidence that Jesus and his disciples accepted the apocryphal books as canon. You're just repeating your assertion over and over as if you can magically make it so by repetition. The fact remains that Jesus or his apostles NEVER quoted or validated the apocrypha. Jesus only validated the Law, Prophets, and Writings (the Jewish Tanakh). You'll never get over that hurdle.

- There's just no denying that Jerome, just like the majority of church fathers, theologians, and scholars from Jerome's time to the 1500's, did not accept the apocrypha as canon. This is just plain, historical fact. You can dance around it all you want, this will always be true. Another huge hurdle that you can't get over.

- You: "What happened in 1947? We found Hebrew copies of some of the DT." --> MY GOSH!! They found Hebrew copies of Hebrew texts?? Astonishing!

- cite your evidence about the author of Ecclesiasticus' grandson.

- did Jesus say there were other books in the canon OTHER than the Law, Prophets, and Writings? Did he teach from or quote anything outside of these? Did he hold the Jews responsible to any other text outside of these? No, he did not. Another huge hurdle for you.
BusyTarpDuster2017
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Quote:

Please go to Google and ask "When was the Jewish canon closed?" They will state that it was a gradual process that happened in the second century. I am willing to say (concede) that it was close during the Council of Jamnia in AD 90, nearly 60 years after Jesus' ascension.
ASK GOOGLE??!! Haha!

Well, since you want to go there, type in Google: "Is prayer to saints biblical?"
You'll get the answer - NO!
Well, there you go!


BusyTarpDuster2017
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Coke Bear said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:


- In what book did Jesus say that the canon was open and fluid?
No. You implied that Jeus didn't accept the DT canon as scripture. Please back up that claim with a fact from history.
BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

- I didn't say that Ecclesiaticus explicitly said the canon was closed, I said the author's grandson said it. But 1 Maccabees DOES explicitly state that including the author himself, there was no prophet in Israel. That excludes him, and all else written during his time, as being infallibly inspired by God.
Maccabees are historical books. The author is not considered a prophet. The authors of 1 & 2 Samuel, 1 & 2 Kings, and1 & 2 Chronicles were not prophets. Neither were Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John.
BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

- Jerome translated it, but he never accepted them as part of canon.
As stated earlier, he bowed in obeisances to the Church. This issue was complex because he did see Jewish copies of these books, which were later found.
BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

- the Catholic Church wasn't around when the Gospels and the Epistles of Paul, Peter, John, etc were already deemed as Scripture by the early church and being circulated among them. Peter calls Paul's writings "scripture" in his letter. The Catholic Church only ratified what was already accepted by the body of Christians. James was also accepted as scripture among many Christians, but it was debated.
I asked you earlier, but you may have missed it …

When was the Catholic Church founded?
Who was the first Pope?
How do you make the determinations on both of these questions?

- YOU claimed Jesus DID accept the apocrypha as canon scripture - you back your claim with a fact from history.

- Anyone who spoke for God was considered a prophet. That included all the writers of the word of God - the Bible.

- The reason Jerome rejected the books of the apocrypha as canon was NOT because there weren't Hebrew copies of it for him to translate - it was because the Jews rejected it, and Jerome was privy to this knowledge because he was living among the Jews as he was working on his translation.

- the "Catholic Church" (universal church) was founded by Jesus. The "Roman Catholic Church" was founded when Constantine made Christianity the official religion of Rome (which caused Christianity there to compromise with pagan worship in Rome). The term "pope" was first used in the third century. Though this isn't the same meaning as what "pope" means to the Roman Catholic Church.
BusyTarpDuster2017
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Coke Bear said:

Coke Bear said:

-Given the fact that Pope Damasus I, at the Council of Rome in 382, endorsed the full 73-book canon of the Bible, when do you argue that Catholics were "adding books" to the Bible? Were the Deuterocanonical books in the first addition of the KJV?

---> Evidently, then, at this time.
Well, this is the same time that the NT was ratified by the Church, so I suppose that you should accept the 46-book OT. Awesome! Welcome one step closer to the Truth of the Catholic Church! God Bless and Welcome Home! Please locate a Catholic Church near you and enroll in OCIA. Classes should start in September.

Actually, the Roman Catholic Church didn't officially canonize the apocryphal books until the Council of Trent in 1546. Less than 500 years ago.

And your point that you're trying to make is utterly confusing - since I think the RCC added books to the canon of the Bible when 73 books were endorsed in 382..... that means I should accept the apocrypha?? That is completely incoherent. Maybe you shouldn't be posting in the middle of the night. Were you drinking? Get some sleep.
ShooterTX
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FLBear5630 said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

FLBear5630 said:

ShooterTX said:

Been away for awhile.
Don't have time right now to read everything here.

Had anyone addressed the 2nd commandment, and why it's missing from the catholic version of the 10 commandments?
I have heard Catholics defend this by saying that the 2nd is just part of the law against false gods... so it's redundant and doesn't need to be included. That seems lie a very weak excuse for eliminating something that God spoke. Why do Catholics need to edit God?
Is it because God specifically says not to bow down to graven images?
Exodus 20:4-5 NIV
[4] "You shall not make for yourself an image in the form of anything in heaven above or on the earth beneath or in the waters below. [5] You shall not bow down to them or worship them; for I, the Lord your God, am a jealous God, punishing the children for the sin of the parents to the third and fourth generation of those who hate me,

Of course the Catholics say that they don't bow down or worship the images of Mary, but...

https://www.facebook.com/story.php?story_fbid=pfbid02ACJAiPbXqGojMeBDRvrS3P9YeSmj4EmwUGNUiAZaihTRTzTHYg85CwFD9PKMdpgMl&id=100068429748592

https://images.app.goo.gl/oN3ZKQssSKUy1EUAA

https://images.app.goo.gl/jiEa5fZ3dDHwhZec6

https://images.app.goo.gl/zXYjFmtm1edKd2sE8

But hey.... no prayers, bowing or worship to an image going on here, right?

The Catechism 2112 addresses the 1st Commandment and idolatry.

The Catholic Church uses St Augustine's numbering of the 10 Commandments. You know him, the guy earlier in the thread you guys were saying was the authority on either Mary, Sola Scriptura or one of the Protestant believes. It changes depending on the subject which ones any of us believe.

If I remember correctly Lutherans and Catholics use St Augustine, Catholic Orthodox and Protestants use Origen's version. They differ. We won't agree that the Catechism addresses it in 2112, as the Catholics and Protestants haven't for 1500 years.

My understanding is the difference lies in whether you are worshiping God or a false God. Once again, we won't agree.

So, do we want to continue to fight the Reformation? It will pretty much go as it has for 1500 years and the last 2 weeks. Both sides say something, the other side says they are wrong. The question is do we want to go to insults or skip that part?
Good Lord - what does the numbering of the Ten Commandments have to do with the fact that Roman Catholics are breaking the one about idols??
Idolatry
2112 The first commandment condemns polytheism. It requires man neither to believe in, nor to venerate, other divinities than the one true God. Scripture constantly recalls this rejection of "idols, (of) silver and gold, the work of men's hands. They have mouths, but do not speak; eyes, but do not see." These empty idols make their worshippers empty: "Those who make them are like them; so are all who trust in them."42 God, however, is the "living God"43 who gives life and intervenes in history.

2113 Idolatry not only refers to false pagan worship. It remains a constant temptation to faith. Idolatry consists in divinizing what is not God. Man commits idolatry whenever he honors and reveres a creature in place of God, whether this be gods or demons (for example, satanism), power, pleasure, race, ancestors, the state, money, etc. Jesus says, "You cannot serve God and mammon."44 Many martyrs died for not adoring "the Beast"45 refusing even to simulate such worship. Idolatry rejects the unique Lordship of God; it is therefore incompatible with communion with God.46

2114 Human life finds its unity in the adoration of the one God. the commandment to worship the Lord alone integrates man and saves him from an endless disintegration. Idolatry is a perversion of man's innate religious sense. An idolater is someone who "transfers his indestructible notion of God to anything other than God."47


There you go, that is what Catholics believe, we do not believe in idolatry. Like it or not.
I am glad that the official statements do recognize that idolatry is a sin. That is good. However, the practice of bowing to statues, kissing statues, and especially doing this to statues of Mary... that is the text book definition of bowing to a graven image. Mary is not God... even the Catholic catechism agrees with that statement. However, many Catholics (including the Pope) pray prayers to Mary and pray more to Mary than to God. They sing songs to Mary. I know that the official statements claim that this is not worship, but "veneration"... but it is a distinction without a difference.

What is worship? The word is derived from the Old English weorscipe, meaning to venerate "worship, honour shown to an object or deity,[url=https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Worship#cite_note-Bosworth-2][2][/url] which has been etymologised as "worthiness or worth-ship"to give, at its simplest, worth to something.

So to venerate is to worship.

If you saw someone engaged in idolatry to a pagan god, what would they be doing? Offering up prayers, singing songs, declaring their devotion to the god, building altars & shrines to the god, creating statues & other forms of idols to the god..... yes, that is how we see someone engaged in idolatry to a pagan god... it is also exactly what hundreds of millions of catholics do around the world with Mary.

I know you want to believe that Catholics do not idolize Mary, but there is no difference between how Catholics treat Mary and Buddhist treat Buda.

We are supposed to pray to God for healing, protection, salvation, blessings,... and yet the Pope does this to Mary. Look again at these prayers offered up by the Pope, and show me where the Pope is asking Mary to ask Jesus for these things. He is not. He is directly asking Mary herself to give healing, blessings, forgiveness, etc.

I'm sorry to say it, but he Catholic statements and the Catholic practices do not line up. It is idolatry... unless you want to claim that Mary is part of the Trinity.

https://images.app.goo.gl/zXYjFmtm1edKd2sE8

https://www.facebook.com/photo/?fbid=767552940317488&set=a.146917329047722&__cft__[0]=AZX7p-9NCVn-rEor6zD8l7ybXshIzgoodGXwQAWt2ZMB9R3sWwHRYUj-mzD75xHmHjccTCj9Kf0VOzzRsTNOv4wmPi_VSm8QBeb5srryZDYGmWCnwL3RxKTVZ2h6wABlAUOYEXt00699EjD88GY7IKzVMOUxoR1W4aMrp_7xUVpiaA&__tn__=EH-R

How can you look at these images and read these prayers, and not see the obvious worship & devotion to a human woman... not God, a woman. Granted, she was very blessed & honored... but that doesn't make her God.
Coke Bear
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BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Coke Bear said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:


You are continuing to fail to understand the concept: the Septuagint contained BOTH canonical and non-canonical writings. Simply quoting from or referencing the canonical part does not magically convert the non-canonical part into canon. This would be like saying someone quoting from Trump's bible would automatically make Trump's writing in the foreword part of the Bible.
The Septuagint makes NO distinction between the canon and the Deuterocanon that claim exists. You are drawing a line base on YOUR beliefs.
Neither does the Trump Bible make a distinction between Trump's foreword and the books of the Bible regarding their canonicity. Therefore Trump's foreword is part of the canon of the Bible. You would be drawing a line based on your beliefs.

See how stupid this argument is?
Quite frankly, I do see the absurdity of your argument here.
Coke Bear
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BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Coke Bear said:


BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

The primary (definitive) evidence that Jesus or his apostles did NOT use the apocryphal texts, is that they never quoted from them.
They You mean other than the FACT that more than 75% of the OT is word-for-word form the Septuagint. Of Paul's 98 scriptural quotations, 95 are exactly from the Septuagint.

You are running from this fact.
There is no need to run from a fact that has no relevance whatsoever. Whatever percentage of the OT and NT that is word for word from their Greek translation in the Septuagint, that's the percentage they are word for word from their CANONICAL counterparts in the Septuagint.

This is how you're arguing: "since the Old and New Testament is virtually word for word with the Old and New Testaments in the Trump Bible, that means that Trump's foreword in the Trump Bible is also canon."

All your arguments stem from the ridiculously flawed reasoning that just because the canonical books of the Septuagint was used, it meant that all of the non-canonical books of the Septuagint were considered canon too. You can recycle/repeat this argument or some variant of it all you want, it just won't magically make it true.

You are really stretching here.

Was it coincidence that the drafters used that many exact quotes?
ShooterTX
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BearFan33 said:

FLBear5630 said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

FLBear5630 said:

ShooterTX said:

Been away for awhile.
Don't have time right now to read everything here.

Had anyone addressed the 2nd commandment, and why it's missing from the catholic version of the 10 commandments?
I have heard Catholics defend this by saying that the 2nd is just part of the law against false gods... so it's redundant and doesn't need to be included. That seems lie a very weak excuse for eliminating something that God spoke. Why do Catholics need to edit God?
Is it because God specifically says not to bow down to graven images?
Exodus 20:4-5 NIV
[4] "You shall not make for yourself an image in the form of anything in heaven above or on the earth beneath or in the waters below. [5] You shall not bow down to them or worship them; for I, the Lord your God, am a jealous God, punishing the children for the sin of the parents to the third and fourth generation of those who hate me,

Of course the Catholics say that they don't bow down or worship the images of Mary, but...

https://www.facebook.com/story.php?story_fbid=pfbid02ACJAiPbXqGojMeBDRvrS3P9YeSmj4EmwUGNUiAZaihTRTzTHYg85CwFD9PKMdpgMl&id=100068429748592

https://images.app.goo.gl/oN3ZKQssSKUy1EUAA

https://images.app.goo.gl/jiEa5fZ3dDHwhZec6

https://images.app.goo.gl/zXYjFmtm1edKd2sE8

But hey.... no prayers, bowing or worship to an image going on here, right?

The Catechism 2112 addresses the 1st Commandment and idolatry.

The Catholic Church uses St Augustine's numbering of the 10 Commandments. You know him, the guy earlier in the thread you guys were saying was the authority on either Mary, Sola Scriptura or one of the Protestant believes. It changes depending on the subject which ones any of us believe.

If I remember correctly Lutherans and Catholics use St Augustine, Catholic Orthodox and Protestants use Origen's version. They differ. We won't agree that the Catechism addresses it in 2112, as the Catholics and Protestants haven't for 1500 years.

My understanding is the difference lies in whether you are worshiping God or a false God. Once again, we won't agree.

So, do we want to continue to fight the Reformation? It will pretty much go as it has for 1500 years and the last 2 weeks. Both sides say something, the other side says they are wrong. The question is do we want to go to insults or skip that part?
Good Lord - what does the numbering of the Ten Commandments have to do with the fact that Roman Catholics are breaking the one about idols??
Idolatry
2112 The first commandment condemns polytheism. It requires man neither to believe in, nor to venerate, other divinities than the one true God. Scripture constantly recalls this rejection of "idols, (of) silver and gold, the work of men's hands. They have mouths, but do not speak; eyes, but do not see." These empty idols make their worshippers empty: "Those who make them are like them; so are all who trust in them."42 God, however, is the "living God"43 who gives life and intervenes in history.

2113 Idolatry not only refers to false pagan worship. It remains a constant temptation to faith. Idolatry consists in divinizing what is not God. Man commits idolatry whenever he honors and reveres a creature in place of God, whether this be gods or demons (for example, satanism), power, pleasure, race, ancestors, the state, money, etc. Jesus says, "You cannot serve God and mammon."44 Many martyrs died for not adoring "the Beast"45 refusing even to simulate such worship. Idolatry rejects the unique Lordship of God; it is therefore incompatible with communion with God.46

2114 Human life finds its unity in the adoration of the one God. the commandment to worship the Lord alone integrates man and saves him from an endless disintegration. Idolatry is a perversion of man's innate religious sense. An idolater is someone who "transfers his indestructible notion of God to anything other than God."47


There you go, that is what Catholics believe, we do not believe in idolatry. Like it or not.
Copilot's thoughts.....

The key to understanding why Catholics praying to Mary and the saints is not considered idol worship lies in the distinction between worship and veneration in Catholic theology.

1. Worship vs. Veneration
  • Worship (latria) is due to God alone. It involves adoration and is reserved for the Holy TrinityFather, Son, and Holy Spirit.
  • Veneration (dulia) is the honor given to saints. It's a form of deep respect, not worship.
  • Hyperdulia is a special veneration given to Mary because of her unique role as the Mother of God, but it still falls short of worship.
2. Role of Saints and Mary
Catholics believe that:
  • Saints are friends of God who are alive in heaven and can intercede (pray) for us.
  • Asking a saint to pray for you is similar to asking a friend or family member to pray for you.
  • Mary, as the mother of Jesus, holds a special place and is seen as a powerful intercessor.
3. Biblical and Historical Roots
  • Catholics point to passages like Revelation 5:8 and Revelation 8:3-4, which depict the saints in heaven offering prayers to God.
  • The practice of honoring saints dates back to the early Church, where martyrs were remembered and their intercession sought.
4. No Divine Power Attributed
  • Catholics do not believe that Mary or the saints have divine power on their own.
  • All grace and miracles come from God; saints are simply channels through whom God may act.
Summary
So, in Catholic understanding:
  • Praying to Mary or the saints is not idol worship because it's not worship at all.
  • It's a request for intercession, not an act of adoration.
  • Worship is reserved for God alone.

Nice words, but as I stated in an earlier post.... there is no difference in the way a pagan treats his false gods, to the way a Catholic treats Mary. It is worship, even if you try to make up a new word like "Hyperdulia", so that you can say it is something other than worship.

The word 'jogging" is very different than the word "running", and yet there are few people on the planet who could observe the distinct differences between them in action.

The practice of "hyperdulia" is no different than the practice of "worship". Building shrines, altars and idols of Mary and then bowing before them, offering up prayers and offerings to them.... all of this is idolatry, even if you give it a different name.
Coke Bear
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BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Quote:

Please go to Google and ask "When was the Jewish canon closed?" They will state that it was a gradual process that happened in the second century. I am willing to say (concede) that it was close during the Council of Jamnia in AD 90, nearly 60 years after Jesus' ascension.
ASK GOOGLE??!! Haha!

Well, since you want to go there, type in Google: "Is prayer to saints biblical?"
You'll get the answer - NO!
Well, there you go!



You have once again fallen for the false sola scriptura argument again.
Coke Bear
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BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Coke Bear said:

Coke Bear said:

-Given the fact that Pope Damasus I, at the Council of Rome in 382, endorsed the full 73-book canon of the Bible, when do you argue that Catholics were "adding books" to the Bible? Were the Deuterocanonical books in the first addition of the KJV?

---> Evidently, then, at this time.
Well, this is the same time that the NT was ratified by the Church, so I suppose that you should accept the 46-book OT. Awesome! Welcome one step closer to the Truth of the Catholic Church! God Bless and Welcome Home! Please locate a Catholic Church near you and enroll in OCIA. Classes should start in September.

Actually, the Roman Catholic Church didn't officially canonize the apocryphal books until the Council of Trent in 1546. Less than 500 years ago.

And your point that you're trying to make is utterly confusing - since I think the RCC added books to the canon of the Bible when 73 books were endorsed in 382..... that means I should accept the apocrypha?? That is completely incoherent. Maybe you shouldn't be posting in the middle of the night. Were you drinking? Get some sleep.
No, you should accept the 73-book canon because that is the correct canon.

My point here is that the Council or Rome is the first to accept the NT as canon. If they got that right, then they got the OT correct.
ShooterTX
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BearFan33 said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

BearFan33 said:

FLBear5630 said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

FLBear5630 said:

ShooterTX said:

Been away for awhile.
Don't have time right now to read everything here.

Had anyone addressed the 2nd commandment, and why it's missing from the catholic version of the 10 commandments?
I have heard Catholics defend this by saying that the 2nd is just part of the law against false gods... so it's redundant and doesn't need to be included. That seems lie a very weak excuse for eliminating something that God spoke. Why do Catholics need to edit God?
Is it because God specifically says not to bow down to graven images?
Exodus 20:4-5 NIV
[4] "You shall not make for yourself an image in the form of anything in heaven above or on the earth beneath or in the waters below. [5] You shall not bow down to them or worship them; for I, the Lord your God, am a jealous God, punishing the children for the sin of the parents to the third and fourth generation of those who hate me,

Of course the Catholics say that they don't bow down or worship the images of Mary, but...

https://www.facebook.com/story.php?story_fbid=pfbid02ACJAiPbXqGojMeBDRvrS3P9YeSmj4EmwUGNUiAZaihTRTzTHYg85CwFD9PKMdpgMl&id=100068429748592

https://images.app.goo.gl/oN3ZKQssSKUy1EUAA

https://images.app.goo.gl/jiEa5fZ3dDHwhZec6

https://images.app.goo.gl/zXYjFmtm1edKd2sE8

But hey.... no prayers, bowing or worship to an image going on here, right?

The Catechism 2112 addresses the 1st Commandment and idolatry.

The Catholic Church uses St Augustine's numbering of the 10 Commandments. You know him, the guy earlier in the thread you guys were saying was the authority on either Mary, Sola Scriptura or one of the Protestant believes. It changes depending on the subject which ones any of us believe.

If I remember correctly Lutherans and Catholics use St Augustine, Catholic Orthodox and Protestants use Origen's version. They differ. We won't agree that the Catechism addresses it in 2112, as the Catholics and Protestants haven't for 1500 years.

My understanding is the difference lies in whether you are worshiping God or a false God. Once again, we won't agree.

So, do we want to continue to fight the Reformation? It will pretty much go as it has for 1500 years and the last 2 weeks. Both sides say something, the other side says they are wrong. The question is do we want to go to insults or skip that part?
Good Lord - what does the numbering of the Ten Commandments have to do with the fact that Roman Catholics are breaking the one about idols??
Idolatry
2112 The first commandment condemns polytheism. It requires man neither to believe in, nor to venerate, other divinities than the one true God. Scripture constantly recalls this rejection of "idols, (of) silver and gold, the work of men's hands. They have mouths, but do not speak; eyes, but do not see." These empty idols make their worshippers empty: "Those who make them are like them; so are all who trust in them."42 God, however, is the "living God"43 who gives life and intervenes in history.

2113 Idolatry not only refers to false pagan worship. It remains a constant temptation to faith. Idolatry consists in divinizing what is not God. Man commits idolatry whenever he honors and reveres a creature in place of God, whether this be gods or demons (for example, satanism), power, pleasure, race, ancestors, the state, money, etc. Jesus says, "You cannot serve God and mammon."44 Many martyrs died for not adoring "the Beast"45 refusing even to simulate such worship. Idolatry rejects the unique Lordship of God; it is therefore incompatible with communion with God.46

2114 Human life finds its unity in the adoration of the one God. the commandment to worship the Lord alone integrates man and saves him from an endless disintegration. Idolatry is a perversion of man's innate religious sense. An idolater is someone who "transfers his indestructible notion of God to anything other than God."47


There you go, that is what Catholics believe, we do not believe in idolatry. Like it or not.
Copilot's thoughts.....

The key to understanding why Catholics praying to Mary and the saints is not considered idol worship lies in the distinction between worship and veneration in Catholic theology.

1. Worship vs. Veneration
  • Worship (latria) is due to God alone. It involves adoration and is reserved for the Holy TrinityFather, Son, and Holy Spirit.
  • Veneration (dulia) is the honor given to saints. It's a form of deep respect, not worship.
  • Hyperdulia is a special veneration given to Mary because of her unique role as the Mother of God, but it still falls short of worship.
2. Role of Saints and Mary
Catholics believe that:
  • Saints are friends of God who are alive in heaven and can intercede (pray) for us.
  • Asking a saint to pray for you is similar to asking a friend or family member to pray for you.
  • Mary, as the mother of Jesus, holds a special place and is seen as a powerful intercessor.
3. Biblical and Historical Roots
  • Catholics point to passages like Revelation 5:8 and Revelation 8:3-4, which depict the saints in heaven offering prayers to God.
  • The practice of honoring saints dates back to the early Church, where martyrs were remembered and their intercession sought.
4. No Divine Power Attributed
  • Catholics do not believe that Mary or the saints have divine power on their own.
  • All grace and miracles come from God; saints are simply channels through whom God may act.
Summary
So, in Catholic understanding:
  • Praying to Mary or the saints is not idol worship because it's not worship at all.
  • It's a request for intercession, not an act of adoration.
  • Worship is reserved for God alone.

Can an honest person truly believe there is no act of adoration of Mary, when they bow to and kiss statues of Mary, pray to her, sing hymns of her in church, hold numerous festivals in her honor throughout the year, have pictures and statues of her all over their house, and have prayers of her which call her "sovereign", "ruler of my house", "peacemaker between sinners and God", "Mediatrix", "god of this world", "our hope and refuge", and they "place their salvation in her hands"?? How is any of this not divinization of Mary?

Can an honest person truly say this isn't worship and idolatry?


Sounds like Some people go overboard

If you ask them who's boss I'm sure the sane Catholics would say "God"

Yes they would... and sadly, many of them will hear the words, "Depart from me, I never knew you" because they put their faith in something other than the Christ who paid the full & complete penalty for their sins. They spent years of their life praying to dead people like Mary, asking for them to give what only Christ can give... or putting their faith in them to be a mediator between them & God, which is only the role for Christ Himself.

Idolatry isn't just some "oopsie" that doesn't matter. It means that people are putting their faith in some other Gospel, than the one that was given by Christ. They put their faith in a Christ that is not the one true Son of God. And sadly, many are directly putting their faith in Mary... not even close to a true Christian faith.
Coke Bear
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BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

- the "Catholic Church" (universal church) was founded by Jesus. The "Roman Catholic Church" was founded when Constantine made Christianity the official religion of Rome (which caused Christianity there to compromise with pagan worship in Rome). The term "pope" was first used in the third century. Though this isn't the same meaning as what "pope" means to the Roman Catholic Church.
Seriously, if you believe that Constantine "founded the Catholic Church", it may be the most embarrassing things that you've ever typed.

I thought you believed in research. What legitimate source did you obtain this information?

First, Constantine never made Christianity the "official religion of Rome". The Edict of Milan if 313 AD gave religious tolerance to Christians, allowing them to practice the religion openly without fear persecution.

Second, in 325 AD he invited bishops from the Roman empire to attend the Council of Nicaea to address the Arian heresy that was dividing the empire - hence - the Nicaean Creed which affirmed the divinity of Jesus.

Sylvester I was the Pope during this Council. He didn't attend, but he sent legates to attend.

Finally, the word "pope" is derived from the Latin word, "papa", meaning father. The "Pope" is just the Bishop of Rome. Forget the term POPE for a minute and tell me who was the first Bishop of Rome.

I've mentioned this book several times before, but it bears repeating. The best book on this topic is The Apostasy That Wasn't: The Extraordinary Story of the Unbreakable Early Church by Rod Bennett.

It's an easy and very interesting read that's meant for the popular level. It's a historical book that reads like a wonderful story. It's not meant to convert anyone. It's there to tell the remarkable story of what the Church went thru before and after the Council.
Coke Bear
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ShooterTX said:

Nice words, but as I stated in an earlier post.... there is no difference in the way a pagan treats his false gods, to the way a Catholic treats Mary. It is worship, even if you try to make up a new word like "Hyperdulia", so that you can say it is something other than worship.

The word 'jogging" is very different than the word "running", and yet there are few people on the planet who could observe the distinct differences between them in action.

The practice of "hyperdulia" is no different than the practice of "worship". Building shrines, altars and idols of Mary and then bowing before them, offering up prayers and offerings to them.... all of this is idolatry, even if you give it a different name.
Is it wrong to bow or kneel before a cross?
ShooterTX
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FLBear5630 said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

BearFan33 said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

BearFan33 said:

FLBear5630 said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

FLBear5630 said:

ShooterTX said:

Been away for awhile.
Don't have time right now to read everything here.

Had anyone addressed the 2nd commandment, and why it's missing from the catholic version of the 10 commandments?
I have heard Catholics defend this by saying that the 2nd is just part of the law against false gods... so it's redundant and doesn't need to be included. That seems lie a very weak excuse for eliminating something that God spoke. Why do Catholics need to edit God?
Is it because God specifically says not to bow down to graven images?
Exodus 20:4-5 NIV
[4] "You shall not make for yourself an image in the form of anything in heaven above or on the earth beneath or in the waters below. [5] You shall not bow down to them or worship them; for I, the Lord your God, am a jealous God, punishing the children for the sin of the parents to the third and fourth generation of those who hate me,

Of course the Catholics say that they don't bow down or worship the images of Mary, but...

https://www.facebook.com/story.php?story_fbid=pfbid02ACJAiPbXqGojMeBDRvrS3P9YeSmj4EmwUGNUiAZaihTRTzTHYg85CwFD9PKMdpgMl&id=100068429748592

https://images.app.goo.gl/oN3ZKQssSKUy1EUAA

https://images.app.goo.gl/jiEa5fZ3dDHwhZec6

https://images.app.goo.gl/zXYjFmtm1edKd2sE8

But hey.... no prayers, bowing or worship to an image going on here, right?

The Catechism 2112 addresses the 1st Commandment and idolatry.

The Catholic Church uses St Augustine's numbering of the 10 Commandments. You know him, the guy earlier in the thread you guys were saying was the authority on either Mary, Sola Scriptura or one of the Protestant believes. It changes depending on the subject which ones any of us believe.

If I remember correctly Lutherans and Catholics use St Augustine, Catholic Orthodox and Protestants use Origen's version. They differ. We won't agree that the Catechism addresses it in 2112, as the Catholics and Protestants haven't for 1500 years.

My understanding is the difference lies in whether you are worshiping God or a false God. Once again, we won't agree.

So, do we want to continue to fight the Reformation? It will pretty much go as it has for 1500 years and the last 2 weeks. Both sides say something, the other side says they are wrong. The question is do we want to go to insults or skip that part?
Good Lord - what does the numbering of the Ten Commandments have to do with the fact that Roman Catholics are breaking the one about idols??
Idolatry
2112 The first commandment condemns polytheism. It requires man neither to believe in, nor to venerate, other divinities than the one true God. Scripture constantly recalls this rejection of "idols, (of) silver and gold, the work of men's hands. They have mouths, but do not speak; eyes, but do not see." These empty idols make their worshippers empty: "Those who make them are like them; so are all who trust in them."42 God, however, is the "living God"43 who gives life and intervenes in history.

2113 Idolatry not only refers to false pagan worship. It remains a constant temptation to faith. Idolatry consists in divinizing what is not God. Man commits idolatry whenever he honors and reveres a creature in place of God, whether this be gods or demons (for example, satanism), power, pleasure, race, ancestors, the state, money, etc. Jesus says, "You cannot serve God and mammon."44 Many martyrs died for not adoring "the Beast"45 refusing even to simulate such worship. Idolatry rejects the unique Lordship of God; it is therefore incompatible with communion with God.46

2114 Human life finds its unity in the adoration of the one God. the commandment to worship the Lord alone integrates man and saves him from an endless disintegration. Idolatry is a perversion of man's innate religious sense. An idolater is someone who "transfers his indestructible notion of God to anything other than God."47


There you go, that is what Catholics believe, we do not believe in idolatry. Like it or not.
Copilot's thoughts.....

The key to understanding why Catholics praying to Mary and the saints is not considered idol worship lies in the distinction between worship and veneration in Catholic theology.

1. Worship vs. Veneration
  • Worship (latria) is due to God alone. It involves adoration and is reserved for the Holy TrinityFather, Son, and Holy Spirit.
  • Veneration (dulia) is the honor given to saints. It's a form of deep respect, not worship.
  • Hyperdulia is a special veneration given to Mary because of her unique role as the Mother of God, but it still falls short of worship.
2. Role of Saints and Mary
Catholics believe that:
  • Saints are friends of God who are alive in heaven and can intercede (pray) for us.
  • Asking a saint to pray for you is similar to asking a friend or family member to pray for you.
  • Mary, as the mother of Jesus, holds a special place and is seen as a powerful intercessor.
3. Biblical and Historical Roots
  • Catholics point to passages like Revelation 5:8 and Revelation 8:3-4, which depict the saints in heaven offering prayers to God.
  • The practice of honoring saints dates back to the early Church, where martyrs were remembered and their intercession sought.
4. No Divine Power Attributed
  • Catholics do not believe that Mary or the saints have divine power on their own.
  • All grace and miracles come from God; saints are simply channels through whom God may act.
Summary
So, in Catholic understanding:
  • Praying to Mary or the saints is not idol worship because it's not worship at all.
  • It's a request for intercession, not an act of adoration.
  • Worship is reserved for God alone.

Can an honest person truly believe there is no act of adoration of Mary, when they bow to and kiss statues of Mary, pray to her, sing hymns of her in church, hold numerous festivals in her honor throughout the year, have pictures and statues of her all over their house, and have prayers of her which call her "sovereign", "ruler of my house", "peacemaker between sinners and God", "Mediatrix", "god of this world", "our hope and refuge", and they "place their salvation in her hands"?? How is any of this not divinization of Mary?

Can an honest person truly say this isn't worship and idolatry?


Sounds like Some people go overboard

If you ask them who's boss I'm sure the sane Catholics would say "God"

No, not just "some" people - all this is fully endorsed by their Magisterium, and thus defines the entire Roman Catholic Church. Catholics believing that the boss is "God" is of no credit to them - the demons believe the same (James 2:9).
And Catholics can't understand how you go to Church without communion each week or believe they don't need confession. It is beyond me to why even go? You guys act like Bible Study is the same as celebrating the sacrament of communion. It is really unbelievable.
To be clear, some churches do communion every week, some every month and some 3-5 times per year.
I wouldn't be opposed to having communion every week, but the important part is gathering together to worship God and pray for one another.

We don't need a priest, as the Bible clearly states. Jesus came to be our only intermediary between us and the Father. We have a direct connection to Christ, so we don't need to confess our sins to some guy in a costume... we can confess our sins to one another, as the Bible clearly instructs us to do.

No one acts like Bible Study is the same as anything else. To study the Bible is a very important part of being a Christian. King David makes this very clear in the Psalms, and we see it again in the Proverbs. Throughout the New Testament we see Jesus and the Apostles confirming that the study of scripture is vitally important to be a follower of Christ. Communion is communion and Bible Study is Bible Study. They are both important in their own unique ways. However, no where do we read that eating the bread and taking the wine will do anything more than be a remembrance of the sacrifice of Jesus, and an act of worship & thanksgiving. It is important, but it is not a requirement for salvation or the forgiveness of sins. Communion and Bible Study have a very common element... both can draw us closer in our understanding & relationship to God... each in their own & unique ways. Likewise, Bible Study itself cannot bring salvation or the forgiveness of sins. We see that in the Pharisees who knew the text thoroughly, but missed out on the Messiah. To know the scriptures is not enough. To know God because of the scriptures, is the goal of Bible Study.



ShooterTX
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Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

DallasBear9902 said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

DallasBear9902 said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

DallasBear9902 said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

FLBear5630 said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Coke Bear said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Coke Bear said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Coke Bear said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Please FOCUS. I didn't ask what YOU think the primary reading shows, I asked whether you agree that the belief that Peter was the "rock" was NOT a constant belief of the early church, given the historical evidence I just provided?
I believe 100% in the word of Jesus that Peter IS the rock that Christ established His Church, in light of your "evidence."

1) Jesus literally said it. The prima facie reading proves that. I go with Jesus here.
2) I've provided 1st & 2nd century evidence from Clement, Ignatius, and Irenaeus that the Church in Rome had primacy and a list of the original bishops of Rome from Peter forward.
3) I will also listen to the magisterium which has proclaimed this for nearly 2000 years. It has been practiced and believed for this entire period.

Finally, I do reject what a 20th/21st century scholar has claimed, especially when I have not read the greater context his statement was made.

I'll trust Jesus. He said so.

If you won't answer the question, don't you see you're only proving that I'm right?

Is there ONE Roman Catholic out there who will discuss this with me honestly? Please, just ONE??
That is a clear answer to your supposed question. If someone else doesn't think so, please let me know.

Question for you, when did you stop betting your wife?
No, it isn't an answer to my question. Good grief.
The lovely Marisa Tomei demonstrates it very well,



If ANY one (protestant or Catholic) feels that I did sufficiently answer the "question" with my beliefs, please let me know. I sincerely mean that.


Your question was phrased in the same vein as "when did you stop betting your wife?"
I don't know what question you have in mind, but the real question was this: given that the historical evidence shows that a majority of patristic writers did NOT view Peter as the "rock" of Matthew 16, then isn't it true that the view that Peter was the "rock" was NOT what the Catholic church "constantly" and "always" believed as the Roman Catholic Church claims?

If anyone feels that your answer, which was telling me that YOU personally believe Peter was the "rock", is an actual answer to that question, then they can please let me know, too. And then I can add them to the clueless list.
Is that list attached to your Keys?

By the way, you are so full of **** it is pathetic. You seem to get off on trying to undermine people's believes by throwing out cherrypicked infromation. Buy a Catechism it will explain every aspect of the Catholic faith. Here is a website in the Vatican. This is the Catholic Position which is correct, regardless of yoursadn Tammy Faye's thoughts


The Primacy of the Successor of Peter in the Mystery of the Church

I guarentee YOU have not found anything new.
The Roman Catholic position is correct, because official Roman Catholic sources say so?

Unbelievable.
If that is unbelievable to you wait until you hear this one:

Sola Scriptura is correct because people say it is.
Too bad no one ever said that.


That is what YOU said. You said Sola Scriptura is reasoning based on theoretical deduction. A theoretical assumption based on deduction. Not based on empirical evidence or observation.

In other words, that it is true because you say it is.

You really aren't good at understanding words, ideas and concepts. A proper Catholic education would have helped you in this regard.
The empirical, observed evidence that sola scriptura is based on is the resurrection of Jesus Christ. That put a stamp on his authority as being from God. He in turn, put his stamp of authority on his disciples: "But the Helper, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, he will teach you all things and bring to your remembrance all that I have said to you." *Therefore*, the word of the original apostles is the direct, infallible word of God. *And since* all the church has in its possession that is the word of the original apostles is in Scripture, then the only thing that can serve as the infallible rule of faith is Scripture.

This is not a "theoretical deduction". It's quite revealing that you would call Jesus' resurrection a "theory". If this is what results from a "proper Catholic education", then thanks for the suggestion, but I think I'll pass.



Beyond the form of what you are doing, you are also wrong on the substance. A common error throughout your posting is reading more into the words of Scripture or Catholic writers than what is actually said. To use a relevant example from you: Jesus said about the Holy Spirit: he will teach you all things and bring to your remembrance all that I have said to you. You clearly read that to mean that the only revelation Jesus has made to his followers and the people of Earth that can be relied on by the Church is in the Bible. But it does not actually say that. All it says is that "[the Holy Spirit] will teach you all things" and "bring to your remembrance all that I have said to you." Nowhere does it then say, "and only that which is recorded in the Bible which will be canonized over a period of over a thousand plus years" will be valid for Church teaching. You are reading ghosts into it.

We also know that the Gospel of John contradicts your premise when John tells us that "Jesus performed many other signs and teachings in the presence of his disciples+ that are not recorded in the book.' The apostles would have almost certainly gained many insights from such teachings and signs that would inform the apostles in their ministry building the Church. So right off the bat we know that revelation and many teachings from Jesus for his disciples exist outside of what is explicitly recorded in the Gospels to teach the rest of us. I'm taking a reasoned guess here (deductive logic), but my sense is that as a Rabbi, over the course of a three year ministry, Jesus would have had many private conversations where Jesus provided spiritual direction to various individuals. As a Rabbi, Jesus would have almost certainly taught during Shabbat and Seder observations. You seem to be suggesting that those private (or more personal) revelations and teachings from Jesus would carry no weight for the process of building the Church. We could go on and on....

+Just to get ahead of you: Having gotten to know your flawed reading style, your temptation is going to be to read John as saying that those teachings and signs occurred only in the presence of his disciples but the language does not exclude others from being present and we do not know exactly what is meant by "disciples" there.
You've failed to understand the point. The ONLY thing we know that came from Jesus mouth directly where he told certain people they would remember everything that he said and did (and because this is Jesus, we can safely assume it will be done infallibly) is in those words in John's gospel. No tradition, written or oral, that is traceable back to Jesus and his original apostles, exists where it contains the same promise from Jesus. If you have these other sources, then show us.

So the point is, the words of the original apostles are the only words we know of that we can be sure of their infallibility. No one else's. Therefore, the only way we can be sure we are following the direction of Jesus infallibly is through the word of his disciples/apostles, i.e. Scripture. So any other tradition, revelation, inspiration must all be weighed against Scripture. If you want to follow any other tradition from another source, you don't have the same promise of infallibility from Jesus. Anyone says that they do, then they have to prove it.

So here's my challenge to you - can you tell me what the Roman Catholic Church has in her possession - any tradition, any writing, whatever - that they KNOW came from Jesus or his original apostles, that is NOT in Scripture?
The Apostles weren't infallible (see Galatians 2). We know the Bible is the Word of God the same way we know other Church teachings are true, because Jesus promised his Spirit would guide the Church.
No one is attempting to say that the Apostles were infallible. The closest to that is the understanding that the scriptures they wrote are infallible because the Holy Spirit directed them in their writings (see John 14:26). All Christians, from the very beginning, have known that those who knew Jesus face-to-face were inspired by the Holy Spirit to write down the teachings & actions of Jesus. It is the involvement of the Holy Spirit which makes the scriptures infallible. And it is the teachings of Jesus which confirm the infallibility of the Old Testament writings.
Jesus promised that the Holy Spirit would guide us all.... not an institution which would claim all the authority, hundreds of years later.
ShooterTX
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Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

St. John Chrysostom (c. 347 AD), the highly influential and prolific Archbishop of Constantinople, named a Doctor of the Catholic Church (an honor only 37 people in church history have) on Peter's confession, not Peter himself, being the the "rock" of Matthew 16:
Quote:

"And I say unto thee, Thou are Peter, and upon this rock I will build my Church': that is, on the faith of his confession." (NPNF Vol. 10, p. 333)

"(Jesus) speaks from this time lowly things, on His way to His passion, that He may show His humanity. For He that has built His church upon Peter's confession, and has so fortified it, that ten thousand dangers and deaths are not to prevail over it…" (NPNF Vol. 10, p. 494)
Chrysostom, on Peter not being the only one having the "keys", but the apostle John having them as well:
Quote:

"For the son of thunder, the beloved of Christ, the pillar of the Churches throughout the world, who holds the keys of heaven, who drank the cup of Christ, and was baptized with His baptism, who lay upon his Master's bosom, with much confidence…" (NPNF Vol. XIV, p. 1)

St. John Chrysostom, like all Catholics, believed Peter was the Rock because of the faith of his confession. The two are not mutually exclusive.
John Chrysostom was not infallible. If he believed that Peter was the Rock and therefore the church was to be built upon Peter... we can clearly see that he was mistaken. The Church of Jesus Christ is based upon and built upon faith in Jesus Christ... not some dude that denied Jesus and had to be corrected by the other apostles.
 
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