BusyTarpDuster2017 said:
D. C. Bear said:
BusyTarpDuster2017 said:
D. C. Bear said:
BusyTarpDuster2017 said:
Sorry, DC Bear, but if you insist on defining systemic racism without there even needing to be racism, you are in your own little world and you'll only be having parallel discussions with others, because no rational person is gonna buy that.
Systemic racism can remain even after the racism that created it is gone.
Significant race-based disadvantages can occur without any racist intent on the part of policy makers.
Your first point requires racism to have existed, so it belies your definition.
Unless there is codified or procedural discrimination and prejudicial action based on race, any disparate outcome between races due to a policy is not "race-based", but rather "race-correlative". Correlation is not causation.
It doesn't "belie my definition," there are three ways systemic racism can be manifested, two of which I discuss here. One is through residual effects of intentional racist policies and one is through accidental effects of policies that were not intentionally racist. (The third, quite obviously, is the effects of current intentionally racist policies).
Call it "race-correlative" if you like, there is little practical difference.
Residual effects of an intentionally racist policy that is no longer existing is not systemic racism, but rather the effects of systemic racism that no longer exists. This is another one of your absurd assertions that no one is buying.
Being "race-correlative" means all the difference in the world - if race isn't the cause, but rather the correlation, then there are other variables that explain the disparate outcome, not race. Therefore, calling it systemic racism would be a misnomer, and a highly dubious characterization. Again, something people are just not buying.
Yes, even if policies were not intentionally racist, they can still be racist if there is unintentional, but yet present, codified and/or procedural discrimination and prejudicial action based on race. Bottom line.
"People" are just not buying?
You simply asserting a definition doesn't mean other people accept your definition any more than you accept theirs. People can disagree about definitions. While you say "Residual effects of an intentionally racist policy that is no longer existing is not systemic racism," others say that it doesn't even have to have an intentionally racist origin to be systemic racism.
For example, here is something about hockey from a Canadian website doesn't meet your definition at all:
"There is no explicit policy that excludes people of colour and Indigenous people from participating in organized hockey, yet there are few players of colour/Indigenous players. What is it that keeps organized hockey 'white'?
Playing hockey is expensive (fees and gear), time consuming for families, requires transportation and an accommodating work schedule, and in Alberta is conducted in English. While there is no 'intent' to exclude non-English speaking, lower-income, shift-working, single-parent families from playing organized hockey, the system is designed by and for middle-class, professional white families."
So, bottom line, claiming that "people aren't buying" a definition that differs from your own is not supported by evidence.