How To Get To Heaven When You Die

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Sam Lowry
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BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Coke Bear said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

--> It works either way: Jesus comes back, then the millenial kingdom starts, and at the end of the millenial kingdom, the Great White Throne judgement begins. Jesus only came back once there. The sheep and goats are the people coming out of the tribulation before the millenial kingdom starts (premillenial view) where all believers were taken up (notice they went UP - Jesus didn't come down)
It sounds like you believe the "Rapture" that wasn't' first taught until the 19th century. You seem to not understand Jesus is COMING here. 1 Thess 4:16-17

For the Lord himself will come down from heaven, with a loud command, with the voice of the archangel and with the trumpet call of God, and the dead in Christ will rise first. After that, we who are still alive and are left will be caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air.


This is similar to the language in Matthew 8:34 used when those who went out of Jerusalem to meet Jesus when he entered the city.

This was the culture during those times. People when out of the city to greet the dignitary and welcome him into the city. We still do this today when a dignitary visits a country or area. People go out to meet them and welcome them to the country. ---> Jesus didn't return to the earth here. "In the clouds", "in the air".

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

---> But not all judged to determine eternal life. Believers will be judged for rewards.
The 9th chapter of Hebrews mentions NOTHING of rewards. You again are reading your theology into the texts. ---> I'm reading the whole of Scripture and harmonizing them. Scripture clearly teaches (even through the direct words of Jesus himself) that believers won't face the judgement to determine their eternal life.

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

---> if this is saying judgement to determine salvation, then how do you square this with Jesus' own words, "they (believers) will not come into judgement, but have passed from death to life"? You are continually trying to make Scripture contradict itself to make your views work.
Again, the Greek here for "judgement" is "krisin" which may be better translated "condemnation". The passage is stating that the believers will not be condemned to hell. It is not saying that they won't be judged. ---> you're losing focus again. I've said that believers will indeed face judgement, but for rewards, not for their eternal life.

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

The biggest example of your view contradicting scripture is that if the sheep and goats parable is about salvation for EVERYONE, then it's saying that salvation is purely by works. But this contradicts the entire gospel message of the Bible.
You still don't (won't want to) get it. This is not saying that we are saved by works. If one commits an unrepented mortal sin, then they will get the judgment they deserve. ---> which means they lose their salvation, ultimately meaning that their salvation was contingent upon their performance and merit, i.e. works.

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

---> are you going against Scripture and saying that believers CAN'T be assured?
Even St Paul wasn't assured when he said in 1 Cor 4:4 ---> So Paul is contradicting John?

I personally have nothing on my conscience, but that does not mean that I am innocent. It is the Lord who judges me. ---> faith in Jesus for one's salvation keeps you out of the judgement for your eternal life. Jesus is telling you this over and over in the Bible, yet you don't want to accept it, you'd rather wear the burden around your own neck. This means you're not trusting in him, which means you're not saved.
BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

---> I believe everything in John 6... so how did the thief on the cross eat a piece of Jesus' flesh and drink his blood? When did the sinful woman of Luke 7 eat Jesus flesh and drink his blood? When did the house of Cornelius eat Jesus' flesh and drink his blood? Obviously, eating his flesh and drinking his blood means believing in him. If you don't think so, then YOU don't believe John 6
Jesus said it 6 times. I know what more he had to do other than perform Eucharistic miracles, (which he has in every age) for you to take Him literally. It's said that you won't believe him. ---> I believe every word he said, and I believe that he said it six times to reinforce the importance of it - that he was going to be sacrificed, and through his sacrifice, we will have eternal life. That's the whole point of his "bread of life" analogy. He wasn't saying he was a literal piece of bread.

The Eucharist is one of the greatest gifts that the LORD has given to us. We get to take the Body, Blood, Soul, and Divinity of Jesus. You can't even imagine what you are missing. ---> We don't get to take his divinity. That's paganism.

I feel sorry for you. ---> that's because you don't understand the true gospel message, and are stuck in a man-made system

The thief had no chance to partake in the Eucharist. God doesn't ask us to do the impossible.---> Jesus literally said you must "eat his flesh" and "drink his blood". It would make him a liar, then.

The bible never mentions sinful woman nor the house of Cornelius again. When don't know whether they ate the Eucharist or not. ---> but Jesus already saved them, before they ever did. This shows that "eating Jesus' flesh" and "drinking his blood" to be saved is not literal.

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

"For this is the will of my Father, that everyone who looks on the Son and BELIEVES in him should have eternal life, and I will raise him up on the last day."

".... Truly, truly, I say to you, whoever BELIEVES has eternal life."
Believing is not just a mental ascent. It is also doing what he said to do. ---> it was, for the thief on the cross and the house of Cornelius.

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

---> they're literally touting their own merits.
You, again, are reading your biases into the text here. ---> "didn't we do this, didn't we do that" as touting their own merits isn't reading into it, it's reading IT.

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

I've done nothing BUT support my claims from biblical and church history. You are really boring me now.
You support your claims with YOUR biblical views. They have NO authority other than your own. Once again, I'll stand with Jesus and his Magisterium. ---> that's what it all comes down to with Roman Catholics - authority. I can show you logically, historically, even biblically that something is true, but instead of following Jesus when he said "why don't you judge for yourselves what is right?" (Luke 12:57), you give all your thinking to a group of fallible men. I've proven over and over how fallible they are. I really wish you'd wake up.


There's no such thing as scriptural teaching without interpretation. Your interpretation is based on your own thinking and that of other men who are just as fallible as anyone else.
That's obviously true in principle, but the parts in scripture we're talking about isn't an arcane puzzle. We can reason together what is the correct meaning. I believe in the perspicuity of scripture, for those able to read and who are willing to study and research. But if certain people claim infallibility, and then are shown to be wrong historically and with direct proof, there is no "interpretation" needed there to see that. You should not give your trust to them for the interpretation of Scripture when you don't understand it yourself. In the early days of the church, people had to trust their leaders. They had no choice. Today, we are blessed with our education and full access to the Bible (remember how the Roman Catholic Church tried to violently quash that?) and virtually all commentaries and the original language translations. We can read many different interpretations and watch and read many debates, and then come to our own understanding, and then reason with and debate each other. Jesus even said to to do this: "why don't you judge for yourselves what is right?"

So if you think my understanding of Scripture isn't correct, then explain. I've shown how Scripture, using reason and logic, does not support that the eating of Jesus' flesh is literal and that we can lose our salvation, to give just two examples. To sum them up - Jesus obviously did not mean to eat his flesh literally, because many people in the Bible were saved without having to do that, or before they were even able to. That's simple logic, it's not "interpretation". And if our names can be blot out of the book of life, then it would mean that Jesus would lose something he was given by the Father, which Jesus clearly says will never happen. Again, simple logic regarding a clear statement by Jesus, not an arcane puzzle from him. What do you disagree with here?
My problem with the historical debate is that we Catholics aren't allowed to win it. You present your evidence, we present ours, and any time it looks like we have a valid historical argument you revert to sola scriptura and say we're relying on fallible human authority. Heads you win, tails we lose.

The problem with your logical arguments is that they're based on your own theological assumptions, many of which Catholics don't share. For example, you think the story of the thief on the cross refutes Catholic teaching on the sacraments because any rule that God gives to us must bind him as well. But that's simply your opinion. It's not the product of any demonstrable reasoning. Many of the things you say Catholics "must" believe are not things that Catholics do or logically should believe.
You lose the historical argument both ways because of how you're using history. It has nothing to do with what I'm doing. On the one hand, you claim historical unanimity or continuity with regard to a certain belief or doctrine; therefore, any historical evidence contrary to that, and you lose. On the other, you claim infallible teaching originating from historical individuals and sources that have no claim to infallibility, and whose claims appear hundreds of years after the original apostles, being completely absent in or even contradicted by the apostle's infallible teaching (i.e. Scripture). So your historical appeal loses there as well.

If a rule that God gives us doesn't bind him to that rule as well, then that's true for all of God's rules: his rule for us that "Jesus is the way, truth, and the light and not one us can come to God except through him" would not be binding either, and thus it was completely superfluous for Jesus to come, suffer, and die for our sins. It would also mean that God does not have to fulfilll any covenant promises He makes to his people. But this is utterly false - God's eternal character is such that he can NOT go against anything he declares. If he does, he isn't God. Simply put, if God goes against something he declares, then he didn't declare it - man did.

You say that Catholics don't share these assumptions, but they're not assumptions, they're necessary implications. It logically must be believed, otherwise your whole belief system collapses. Necessary must mean necessary, or nothing is necessary. If you "must" eat Jesus' literal flesh, then you MUST, or there isn't anything you must do. God does not double-speak, but apparently Roman Catholicism tries to make Him do so. This diminishes the very nature and character of God.
Historical continuity does not mean historical unanimity. Those are very different things.

If God couldn't change anything he declared, we would still be bound by everything in the Old Testament law.
Umm, yes, that's why I said historical unanimity OR continuity.

God's Law has not been changed or revoked. Jesus eternally stands as the fulfillment of that Law, and those who believe in him are credited with the same standing. For those who don't believe, the Law is still very much in effect.
So it's a sin to eat shellfish if you don't believe in Jesus?
God did not hold Gentiles to his ceremonial and dietary laws. He does hold everyone to his moral law, though. To Jews who become Christians, eating shellfish is no longer a sin because Jesus fulfilled the entire Law in their stead and for them those foods have been declared "clean". To Jews who reject Jesus, however, since they are therefore still under the Law, yes, it is still a sin.

Are homosexual acts still a sin if you are a believer?
Yes, homosexual acts are still sinful because they violate the moral law.

But God didn't say in the New Testament that some foods are unclean, it's sinful to eat them, yet we need not worry because Jesus paid the price for our sins. He told Peter, "It is not for you to call anything profane, which God has made clean."

By your reasoning, this is God going against his own nature. If he says we're not to eat shellfish, or that we must be baptized, it logically and necessarily follows that there can be no exceptions.
BusyTarpDuster2017
How long do you want to ignore this user?
Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Coke Bear said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

--> It works either way: Jesus comes back, then the millenial kingdom starts, and at the end of the millenial kingdom, the Great White Throne judgement begins. Jesus only came back once there. The sheep and goats are the people coming out of the tribulation before the millenial kingdom starts (premillenial view) where all believers were taken up (notice they went UP - Jesus didn't come down)
It sounds like you believe the "Rapture" that wasn't' first taught until the 19th century. You seem to not understand Jesus is COMING here. 1 Thess 4:16-17

For the Lord himself will come down from heaven, with a loud command, with the voice of the archangel and with the trumpet call of God, and the dead in Christ will rise first. After that, we who are still alive and are left will be caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air.


This is similar to the language in Matthew 8:34 used when those who went out of Jerusalem to meet Jesus when he entered the city.

This was the culture during those times. People when out of the city to greet the dignitary and welcome him into the city. We still do this today when a dignitary visits a country or area. People go out to meet them and welcome them to the country. ---> Jesus didn't return to the earth here. "In the clouds", "in the air".

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

---> But not all judged to determine eternal life. Believers will be judged for rewards.
The 9th chapter of Hebrews mentions NOTHING of rewards. You again are reading your theology into the texts. ---> I'm reading the whole of Scripture and harmonizing them. Scripture clearly teaches (even through the direct words of Jesus himself) that believers won't face the judgement to determine their eternal life.

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

---> if this is saying judgement to determine salvation, then how do you square this with Jesus' own words, "they (believers) will not come into judgement, but have passed from death to life"? You are continually trying to make Scripture contradict itself to make your views work.
Again, the Greek here for "judgement" is "krisin" which may be better translated "condemnation". The passage is stating that the believers will not be condemned to hell. It is not saying that they won't be judged. ---> you're losing focus again. I've said that believers will indeed face judgement, but for rewards, not for their eternal life.

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

The biggest example of your view contradicting scripture is that if the sheep and goats parable is about salvation for EVERYONE, then it's saying that salvation is purely by works. But this contradicts the entire gospel message of the Bible.
You still don't (won't want to) get it. This is not saying that we are saved by works. If one commits an unrepented mortal sin, then they will get the judgment they deserve. ---> which means they lose their salvation, ultimately meaning that their salvation was contingent upon their performance and merit, i.e. works.

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

---> are you going against Scripture and saying that believers CAN'T be assured?
Even St Paul wasn't assured when he said in 1 Cor 4:4 ---> So Paul is contradicting John?

I personally have nothing on my conscience, but that does not mean that I am innocent. It is the Lord who judges me. ---> faith in Jesus for one's salvation keeps you out of the judgement for your eternal life. Jesus is telling you this over and over in the Bible, yet you don't want to accept it, you'd rather wear the burden around your own neck. This means you're not trusting in him, which means you're not saved.
BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

---> I believe everything in John 6... so how did the thief on the cross eat a piece of Jesus' flesh and drink his blood? When did the sinful woman of Luke 7 eat Jesus flesh and drink his blood? When did the house of Cornelius eat Jesus' flesh and drink his blood? Obviously, eating his flesh and drinking his blood means believing in him. If you don't think so, then YOU don't believe John 6
Jesus said it 6 times. I know what more he had to do other than perform Eucharistic miracles, (which he has in every age) for you to take Him literally. It's said that you won't believe him. ---> I believe every word he said, and I believe that he said it six times to reinforce the importance of it - that he was going to be sacrificed, and through his sacrifice, we will have eternal life. That's the whole point of his "bread of life" analogy. He wasn't saying he was a literal piece of bread.

The Eucharist is one of the greatest gifts that the LORD has given to us. We get to take the Body, Blood, Soul, and Divinity of Jesus. You can't even imagine what you are missing. ---> We don't get to take his divinity. That's paganism.

I feel sorry for you. ---> that's because you don't understand the true gospel message, and are stuck in a man-made system

The thief had no chance to partake in the Eucharist. God doesn't ask us to do the impossible.---> Jesus literally said you must "eat his flesh" and "drink his blood". It would make him a liar, then.

The bible never mentions sinful woman nor the house of Cornelius again. When don't know whether they ate the Eucharist or not. ---> but Jesus already saved them, before they ever did. This shows that "eating Jesus' flesh" and "drinking his blood" to be saved is not literal.

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

"For this is the will of my Father, that everyone who looks on the Son and BELIEVES in him should have eternal life, and I will raise him up on the last day."

".... Truly, truly, I say to you, whoever BELIEVES has eternal life."
Believing is not just a mental ascent. It is also doing what he said to do. ---> it was, for the thief on the cross and the house of Cornelius.

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

---> they're literally touting their own merits.
You, again, are reading your biases into the text here. ---> "didn't we do this, didn't we do that" as touting their own merits isn't reading into it, it's reading IT.

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

I've done nothing BUT support my claims from biblical and church history. You are really boring me now.
You support your claims with YOUR biblical views. They have NO authority other than your own. Once again, I'll stand with Jesus and his Magisterium. ---> that's what it all comes down to with Roman Catholics - authority. I can show you logically, historically, even biblically that something is true, but instead of following Jesus when he said "why don't you judge for yourselves what is right?" (Luke 12:57), you give all your thinking to a group of fallible men. I've proven over and over how fallible they are. I really wish you'd wake up.


There's no such thing as scriptural teaching without interpretation. Your interpretation is based on your own thinking and that of other men who are just as fallible as anyone else.
That's obviously true in principle, but the parts in scripture we're talking about isn't an arcane puzzle. We can reason together what is the correct meaning. I believe in the perspicuity of scripture, for those able to read and who are willing to study and research. But if certain people claim infallibility, and then are shown to be wrong historically and with direct proof, there is no "interpretation" needed there to see that. You should not give your trust to them for the interpretation of Scripture when you don't understand it yourself. In the early days of the church, people had to trust their leaders. They had no choice. Today, we are blessed with our education and full access to the Bible (remember how the Roman Catholic Church tried to violently quash that?) and virtually all commentaries and the original language translations. We can read many different interpretations and watch and read many debates, and then come to our own understanding, and then reason with and debate each other. Jesus even said to to do this: "why don't you judge for yourselves what is right?"

So if you think my understanding of Scripture isn't correct, then explain. I've shown how Scripture, using reason and logic, does not support that the eating of Jesus' flesh is literal and that we can lose our salvation, to give just two examples. To sum them up - Jesus obviously did not mean to eat his flesh literally, because many people in the Bible were saved without having to do that, or before they were even able to. That's simple logic, it's not "interpretation". And if our names can be blot out of the book of life, then it would mean that Jesus would lose something he was given by the Father, which Jesus clearly says will never happen. Again, simple logic regarding a clear statement by Jesus, not an arcane puzzle from him. What do you disagree with here?
My problem with the historical debate is that we Catholics aren't allowed to win it. You present your evidence, we present ours, and any time it looks like we have a valid historical argument you revert to sola scriptura and say we're relying on fallible human authority. Heads you win, tails we lose.

The problem with your logical arguments is that they're based on your own theological assumptions, many of which Catholics don't share. For example, you think the story of the thief on the cross refutes Catholic teaching on the sacraments because any rule that God gives to us must bind him as well. But that's simply your opinion. It's not the product of any demonstrable reasoning. Many of the things you say Catholics "must" believe are not things that Catholics do or logically should believe.
You lose the historical argument both ways because of how you're using history. It has nothing to do with what I'm doing. On the one hand, you claim historical unanimity or continuity with regard to a certain belief or doctrine; therefore, any historical evidence contrary to that, and you lose. On the other, you claim infallible teaching originating from historical individuals and sources that have no claim to infallibility, and whose claims appear hundreds of years after the original apostles, being completely absent in or even contradicted by the apostle's infallible teaching (i.e. Scripture). So your historical appeal loses there as well.

If a rule that God gives us doesn't bind him to that rule as well, then that's true for all of God's rules: his rule for us that "Jesus is the way, truth, and the light and not one us can come to God except through him" would not be binding either, and thus it was completely superfluous for Jesus to come, suffer, and die for our sins. It would also mean that God does not have to fulfilll any covenant promises He makes to his people. But this is utterly false - God's eternal character is such that he can NOT go against anything he declares. If he does, he isn't God. Simply put, if God goes against something he declares, then he didn't declare it - man did.

You say that Catholics don't share these assumptions, but they're not assumptions, they're necessary implications. It logically must be believed, otherwise your whole belief system collapses. Necessary must mean necessary, or nothing is necessary. If you "must" eat Jesus' literal flesh, then you MUST, or there isn't anything you must do. God does not double-speak, but apparently Roman Catholicism tries to make Him do so. This diminishes the very nature and character of God.
Historical continuity does not mean historical unanimity. Those are very different things.

If God couldn't change anything he declared, we would still be bound by everything in the Old Testament law.
Umm, yes, that's why I said historical unanimity OR continuity.

God's Law has not been changed or revoked. Jesus eternally stands as the fulfillment of that Law, and those who believe in him are credited with the same standing. For those who don't believe, the Law is still very much in effect.
So it's a sin to eat shellfish if you don't believe in Jesus?
God did not hold Gentiles to his ceremonial and dietary laws. He does hold everyone to his moral law, though. To Jews who become Christians, eating shellfish is no longer a sin because Jesus fulfilled the entire Law in their stead and for them those foods have been declared "clean". To Jews who reject Jesus, however, since they are therefore still under the Law, yes, it is still a sin.

Are homosexual acts still a sin if you are a believer?
Yes, homosexual acts are still sinful because they violate the moral law.

But God didn't say in the New Testament that some foods are unclean, it's sinful to eat them, yet we need not worry because Jesus paid the price for our sins. He told Peter, "It is not for you to call anything profane, which God has made clean."

By your reasoning, this is God going against his own nature. If he says we're not to eat shellfish, or that we must be baptized, it logically and necessarily follows that there can be no exceptions.
God isn't going against his own nature if he first declares foods unclean, and then declares them clean after that requirement was fulfilled (in Jesus). There's a difference between God going against what he declares or being inconsistent with it, and God declaring something fulfilled and no longer in effect.

Therefore, it would be against God's nature if he says that one MUST literally eat his flesh and drink his blood or they are not saved.... but then save the thief on the cross, the sinful woman in Luke 7, and the house of Cornelius only moments afterward, all without them meeting that requirement, and before any declaration by him that such a requirement was fulfilled and done with. I don't know of any such declaration, do you? The obvious conclusion is that eating his flesh and drinking his blood are not literal (especially since he even explained that it wasn't).

If homosexual acts are still sinful for us believers, then it means that though we are not "under" the Law in that our eternal life does not depend on our perfect fulfillment of it, God has not un-declared the Law. It still convicts us of sin and of our falling short, and thus of our need of a Savior. Though we believers were once guilty under the Law, God changed that declaration to that of innocence and righteousness, because again, Jesus fulfilled that for us, and paid the penalty for us in full. It would have been, however, against God's nature to declare this if there was no fulfillment by Jesus.

I find it curious that a Roman Catholic would suggest they are no longer under Old Testament Law, when mortal sins are based on it, and committing such sins subjects them them to Hell regardless of what their faith is. If that doesn't say that you're still under the Law, I don't know what would.
Sam Lowry
How long do you want to ignore this user?
BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Coke Bear said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

--> It works either way: Jesus comes back, then the millenial kingdom starts, and at the end of the millenial kingdom, the Great White Throne judgement begins. Jesus only came back once there. The sheep and goats are the people coming out of the tribulation before the millenial kingdom starts (premillenial view) where all believers were taken up (notice they went UP - Jesus didn't come down)
It sounds like you believe the "Rapture" that wasn't' first taught until the 19th century. You seem to not understand Jesus is COMING here. 1 Thess 4:16-17

For the Lord himself will come down from heaven, with a loud command, with the voice of the archangel and with the trumpet call of God, and the dead in Christ will rise first. After that, we who are still alive and are left will be caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air.


This is similar to the language in Matthew 8:34 used when those who went out of Jerusalem to meet Jesus when he entered the city.

This was the culture during those times. People when out of the city to greet the dignitary and welcome him into the city. We still do this today when a dignitary visits a country or area. People go out to meet them and welcome them to the country. ---> Jesus didn't return to the earth here. "In the clouds", "in the air".

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

---> But not all judged to determine eternal life. Believers will be judged for rewards.
The 9th chapter of Hebrews mentions NOTHING of rewards. You again are reading your theology into the texts. ---> I'm reading the whole of Scripture and harmonizing them. Scripture clearly teaches (even through the direct words of Jesus himself) that believers won't face the judgement to determine their eternal life.

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

---> if this is saying judgement to determine salvation, then how do you square this with Jesus' own words, "they (believers) will not come into judgement, but have passed from death to life"? You are continually trying to make Scripture contradict itself to make your views work.
Again, the Greek here for "judgement" is "krisin" which may be better translated "condemnation". The passage is stating that the believers will not be condemned to hell. It is not saying that they won't be judged. ---> you're losing focus again. I've said that believers will indeed face judgement, but for rewards, not for their eternal life.

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

The biggest example of your view contradicting scripture is that if the sheep and goats parable is about salvation for EVERYONE, then it's saying that salvation is purely by works. But this contradicts the entire gospel message of the Bible.
You still don't (won't want to) get it. This is not saying that we are saved by works. If one commits an unrepented mortal sin, then they will get the judgment they deserve. ---> which means they lose their salvation, ultimately meaning that their salvation was contingent upon their performance and merit, i.e. works.

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

---> are you going against Scripture and saying that believers CAN'T be assured?
Even St Paul wasn't assured when he said in 1 Cor 4:4 ---> So Paul is contradicting John?

I personally have nothing on my conscience, but that does not mean that I am innocent. It is the Lord who judges me. ---> faith in Jesus for one's salvation keeps you out of the judgement for your eternal life. Jesus is telling you this over and over in the Bible, yet you don't want to accept it, you'd rather wear the burden around your own neck. This means you're not trusting in him, which means you're not saved.
BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

---> I believe everything in John 6... so how did the thief on the cross eat a piece of Jesus' flesh and drink his blood? When did the sinful woman of Luke 7 eat Jesus flesh and drink his blood? When did the house of Cornelius eat Jesus' flesh and drink his blood? Obviously, eating his flesh and drinking his blood means believing in him. If you don't think so, then YOU don't believe John 6
Jesus said it 6 times. I know what more he had to do other than perform Eucharistic miracles, (which he has in every age) for you to take Him literally. It's said that you won't believe him. ---> I believe every word he said, and I believe that he said it six times to reinforce the importance of it - that he was going to be sacrificed, and through his sacrifice, we will have eternal life. That's the whole point of his "bread of life" analogy. He wasn't saying he was a literal piece of bread.

The Eucharist is one of the greatest gifts that the LORD has given to us. We get to take the Body, Blood, Soul, and Divinity of Jesus. You can't even imagine what you are missing. ---> We don't get to take his divinity. That's paganism.

I feel sorry for you. ---> that's because you don't understand the true gospel message, and are stuck in a man-made system

The thief had no chance to partake in the Eucharist. God doesn't ask us to do the impossible.---> Jesus literally said you must "eat his flesh" and "drink his blood". It would make him a liar, then.

The bible never mentions sinful woman nor the house of Cornelius again. When don't know whether they ate the Eucharist or not. ---> but Jesus already saved them, before they ever did. This shows that "eating Jesus' flesh" and "drinking his blood" to be saved is not literal.

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

"For this is the will of my Father, that everyone who looks on the Son and BELIEVES in him should have eternal life, and I will raise him up on the last day."

".... Truly, truly, I say to you, whoever BELIEVES has eternal life."
Believing is not just a mental ascent. It is also doing what he said to do. ---> it was, for the thief on the cross and the house of Cornelius.

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

---> they're literally touting their own merits.
You, again, are reading your biases into the text here. ---> "didn't we do this, didn't we do that" as touting their own merits isn't reading into it, it's reading IT.

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

I've done nothing BUT support my claims from biblical and church history. You are really boring me now.
You support your claims with YOUR biblical views. They have NO authority other than your own. Once again, I'll stand with Jesus and his Magisterium. ---> that's what it all comes down to with Roman Catholics - authority. I can show you logically, historically, even biblically that something is true, but instead of following Jesus when he said "why don't you judge for yourselves what is right?" (Luke 12:57), you give all your thinking to a group of fallible men. I've proven over and over how fallible they are. I really wish you'd wake up.


There's no such thing as scriptural teaching without interpretation. Your interpretation is based on your own thinking and that of other men who are just as fallible as anyone else.
That's obviously true in principle, but the parts in scripture we're talking about isn't an arcane puzzle. We can reason together what is the correct meaning. I believe in the perspicuity of scripture, for those able to read and who are willing to study and research. But if certain people claim infallibility, and then are shown to be wrong historically and with direct proof, there is no "interpretation" needed there to see that. You should not give your trust to them for the interpretation of Scripture when you don't understand it yourself. In the early days of the church, people had to trust their leaders. They had no choice. Today, we are blessed with our education and full access to the Bible (remember how the Roman Catholic Church tried to violently quash that?) and virtually all commentaries and the original language translations. We can read many different interpretations and watch and read many debates, and then come to our own understanding, and then reason with and debate each other. Jesus even said to to do this: "why don't you judge for yourselves what is right?"

So if you think my understanding of Scripture isn't correct, then explain. I've shown how Scripture, using reason and logic, does not support that the eating of Jesus' flesh is literal and that we can lose our salvation, to give just two examples. To sum them up - Jesus obviously did not mean to eat his flesh literally, because many people in the Bible were saved without having to do that, or before they were even able to. That's simple logic, it's not "interpretation". And if our names can be blot out of the book of life, then it would mean that Jesus would lose something he was given by the Father, which Jesus clearly says will never happen. Again, simple logic regarding a clear statement by Jesus, not an arcane puzzle from him. What do you disagree with here?
My problem with the historical debate is that we Catholics aren't allowed to win it. You present your evidence, we present ours, and any time it looks like we have a valid historical argument you revert to sola scriptura and say we're relying on fallible human authority. Heads you win, tails we lose.

The problem with your logical arguments is that they're based on your own theological assumptions, many of which Catholics don't share. For example, you think the story of the thief on the cross refutes Catholic teaching on the sacraments because any rule that God gives to us must bind him as well. But that's simply your opinion. It's not the product of any demonstrable reasoning. Many of the things you say Catholics "must" believe are not things that Catholics do or logically should believe.
You lose the historical argument both ways because of how you're using history. It has nothing to do with what I'm doing. On the one hand, you claim historical unanimity or continuity with regard to a certain belief or doctrine; therefore, any historical evidence contrary to that, and you lose. On the other, you claim infallible teaching originating from historical individuals and sources that have no claim to infallibility, and whose claims appear hundreds of years after the original apostles, being completely absent in or even contradicted by the apostle's infallible teaching (i.e. Scripture). So your historical appeal loses there as well.

If a rule that God gives us doesn't bind him to that rule as well, then that's true for all of God's rules: his rule for us that "Jesus is the way, truth, and the light and not one us can come to God except through him" would not be binding either, and thus it was completely superfluous for Jesus to come, suffer, and die for our sins. It would also mean that God does not have to fulfilll any covenant promises He makes to his people. But this is utterly false - God's eternal character is such that he can NOT go against anything he declares. If he does, he isn't God. Simply put, if God goes against something he declares, then he didn't declare it - man did.

You say that Catholics don't share these assumptions, but they're not assumptions, they're necessary implications. It logically must be believed, otherwise your whole belief system collapses. Necessary must mean necessary, or nothing is necessary. If you "must" eat Jesus' literal flesh, then you MUST, or there isn't anything you must do. God does not double-speak, but apparently Roman Catholicism tries to make Him do so. This diminishes the very nature and character of God.
Historical continuity does not mean historical unanimity. Those are very different things.

If God couldn't change anything he declared, we would still be bound by everything in the Old Testament law.
Umm, yes, that's why I said historical unanimity OR continuity.

God's Law has not been changed or revoked. Jesus eternally stands as the fulfillment of that Law, and those who believe in him are credited with the same standing. For those who don't believe, the Law is still very much in effect.
So it's a sin to eat shellfish if you don't believe in Jesus?
God did not hold Gentiles to his ceremonial and dietary laws. He does hold everyone to his moral law, though. To Jews who become Christians, eating shellfish is no longer a sin because Jesus fulfilled the entire Law in their stead and for them those foods have been declared "clean". To Jews who reject Jesus, however, since they are therefore still under the Law, yes, it is still a sin.

Are homosexual acts still a sin if you are a believer?
Yes, homosexual acts are still sinful because they violate the moral law.

But God didn't say in the New Testament that some foods are unclean, it's sinful to eat them, yet we need not worry because Jesus paid the price for our sins. He told Peter, "It is not for you to call anything profane, which God has made clean."

By your reasoning, this is God going against his own nature. If he says we're not to eat shellfish, or that we must be baptized, it logically and necessarily follows that there can be no exceptions.
God isn't going against his own nature if he first declares foods unclean, and then declares them clean after that requirement was fulfilled (in Jesus). There's a difference between God going against what he declares or being inconsistent with it, and God declaring something fulfilled and no longer in effect.

Therefore, it would be against God's nature if he says that one MUST literally eat his flesh and drink his blood or they are not saved.... but then save the thief on the cross, the sinful woman in Luke 7, and the house of Cornelius only moments afterward, all without them meeting that requirement, and before any declaration by him that such a requirement was fulfilled and done with. I don't know of any such declaration, do you? The obvious conclusion is that eating his flesh and drinking his blood are not literal (especially since he even explained that it wasn't).

If homosexual acts are still sinful for us believers, then it means that though we are not "under" the Law in that our eternal life does not depend on our perfect fulfillment of it, God has not un-declared the Law. It still convicts us of sin and of our falling short, and thus of our need of a Savior. Though we believers were once guilty under the Law, God changed that declaration to that of innocence and righteousness, because again, Jesus fulfilled that for us, and paid the penalty for us in full. It would have been, however, against God's nature to declare this if there was no fulfillment by Jesus.

I find it curious that a Roman Catholic would suggest they are no longer under Old Testament Law, when mortal sins are based on it, and committing such sins subjects them them to Hell regardless of what their faith is. If that doesn't say that you're still under the Law, I don't know what would.
Eating shellfish didn't become acceptable because Jesus paid the price for it. Otherwise, homosexual acts would have become acceptable too.

What was dietarily unclean because God said so is now clean because God says so. Likewise, baptism and the other sacraments are required because God says so...yet he is not bound by them.
BusyTarpDuster2017
How long do you want to ignore this user?
Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Coke Bear said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

--> It works either way: Jesus comes back, then the millenial kingdom starts, and at the end of the millenial kingdom, the Great White Throne judgement begins. Jesus only came back once there. The sheep and goats are the people coming out of the tribulation before the millenial kingdom starts (premillenial view) where all believers were taken up (notice they went UP - Jesus didn't come down)
It sounds like you believe the "Rapture" that wasn't' first taught until the 19th century. You seem to not understand Jesus is COMING here. 1 Thess 4:16-17

For the Lord himself will come down from heaven, with a loud command, with the voice of the archangel and with the trumpet call of God, and the dead in Christ will rise first. After that, we who are still alive and are left will be caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air.


This is similar to the language in Matthew 8:34 used when those who went out of Jerusalem to meet Jesus when he entered the city.

This was the culture during those times. People when out of the city to greet the dignitary and welcome him into the city. We still do this today when a dignitary visits a country or area. People go out to meet them and welcome them to the country. ---> Jesus didn't return to the earth here. "In the clouds", "in the air".

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

---> But not all judged to determine eternal life. Believers will be judged for rewards.
The 9th chapter of Hebrews mentions NOTHING of rewards. You again are reading your theology into the texts. ---> I'm reading the whole of Scripture and harmonizing them. Scripture clearly teaches (even through the direct words of Jesus himself) that believers won't face the judgement to determine their eternal life.

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

---> if this is saying judgement to determine salvation, then how do you square this with Jesus' own words, "they (believers) will not come into judgement, but have passed from death to life"? You are continually trying to make Scripture contradict itself to make your views work.
Again, the Greek here for "judgement" is "krisin" which may be better translated "condemnation". The passage is stating that the believers will not be condemned to hell. It is not saying that they won't be judged. ---> you're losing focus again. I've said that believers will indeed face judgement, but for rewards, not for their eternal life.

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

The biggest example of your view contradicting scripture is that if the sheep and goats parable is about salvation for EVERYONE, then it's saying that salvation is purely by works. But this contradicts the entire gospel message of the Bible.
You still don't (won't want to) get it. This is not saying that we are saved by works. If one commits an unrepented mortal sin, then they will get the judgment they deserve. ---> which means they lose their salvation, ultimately meaning that their salvation was contingent upon their performance and merit, i.e. works.

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

---> are you going against Scripture and saying that believers CAN'T be assured?
Even St Paul wasn't assured when he said in 1 Cor 4:4 ---> So Paul is contradicting John?

I personally have nothing on my conscience, but that does not mean that I am innocent. It is the Lord who judges me. ---> faith in Jesus for one's salvation keeps you out of the judgement for your eternal life. Jesus is telling you this over and over in the Bible, yet you don't want to accept it, you'd rather wear the burden around your own neck. This means you're not trusting in him, which means you're not saved.
BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

---> I believe everything in John 6... so how did the thief on the cross eat a piece of Jesus' flesh and drink his blood? When did the sinful woman of Luke 7 eat Jesus flesh and drink his blood? When did the house of Cornelius eat Jesus' flesh and drink his blood? Obviously, eating his flesh and drinking his blood means believing in him. If you don't think so, then YOU don't believe John 6
Jesus said it 6 times. I know what more he had to do other than perform Eucharistic miracles, (which he has in every age) for you to take Him literally. It's said that you won't believe him. ---> I believe every word he said, and I believe that he said it six times to reinforce the importance of it - that he was going to be sacrificed, and through his sacrifice, we will have eternal life. That's the whole point of his "bread of life" analogy. He wasn't saying he was a literal piece of bread.

The Eucharist is one of the greatest gifts that the LORD has given to us. We get to take the Body, Blood, Soul, and Divinity of Jesus. You can't even imagine what you are missing. ---> We don't get to take his divinity. That's paganism.

I feel sorry for you. ---> that's because you don't understand the true gospel message, and are stuck in a man-made system

The thief had no chance to partake in the Eucharist. God doesn't ask us to do the impossible.---> Jesus literally said you must "eat his flesh" and "drink his blood". It would make him a liar, then.

The bible never mentions sinful woman nor the house of Cornelius again. When don't know whether they ate the Eucharist or not. ---> but Jesus already saved them, before they ever did. This shows that "eating Jesus' flesh" and "drinking his blood" to be saved is not literal.

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

"For this is the will of my Father, that everyone who looks on the Son and BELIEVES in him should have eternal life, and I will raise him up on the last day."

".... Truly, truly, I say to you, whoever BELIEVES has eternal life."
Believing is not just a mental ascent. It is also doing what he said to do. ---> it was, for the thief on the cross and the house of Cornelius.

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

---> they're literally touting their own merits.
You, again, are reading your biases into the text here. ---> "didn't we do this, didn't we do that" as touting their own merits isn't reading into it, it's reading IT.

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

I've done nothing BUT support my claims from biblical and church history. You are really boring me now.
You support your claims with YOUR biblical views. They have NO authority other than your own. Once again, I'll stand with Jesus and his Magisterium. ---> that's what it all comes down to with Roman Catholics - authority. I can show you logically, historically, even biblically that something is true, but instead of following Jesus when he said "why don't you judge for yourselves what is right?" (Luke 12:57), you give all your thinking to a group of fallible men. I've proven over and over how fallible they are. I really wish you'd wake up.


There's no such thing as scriptural teaching without interpretation. Your interpretation is based on your own thinking and that of other men who are just as fallible as anyone else.
That's obviously true in principle, but the parts in scripture we're talking about isn't an arcane puzzle. We can reason together what is the correct meaning. I believe in the perspicuity of scripture, for those able to read and who are willing to study and research. But if certain people claim infallibility, and then are shown to be wrong historically and with direct proof, there is no "interpretation" needed there to see that. You should not give your trust to them for the interpretation of Scripture when you don't understand it yourself. In the early days of the church, people had to trust their leaders. They had no choice. Today, we are blessed with our education and full access to the Bible (remember how the Roman Catholic Church tried to violently quash that?) and virtually all commentaries and the original language translations. We can read many different interpretations and watch and read many debates, and then come to our own understanding, and then reason with and debate each other. Jesus even said to to do this: "why don't you judge for yourselves what is right?"

So if you think my understanding of Scripture isn't correct, then explain. I've shown how Scripture, using reason and logic, does not support that the eating of Jesus' flesh is literal and that we can lose our salvation, to give just two examples. To sum them up - Jesus obviously did not mean to eat his flesh literally, because many people in the Bible were saved without having to do that, or before they were even able to. That's simple logic, it's not "interpretation". And if our names can be blot out of the book of life, then it would mean that Jesus would lose something he was given by the Father, which Jesus clearly says will never happen. Again, simple logic regarding a clear statement by Jesus, not an arcane puzzle from him. What do you disagree with here?
My problem with the historical debate is that we Catholics aren't allowed to win it. You present your evidence, we present ours, and any time it looks like we have a valid historical argument you revert to sola scriptura and say we're relying on fallible human authority. Heads you win, tails we lose.

The problem with your logical arguments is that they're based on your own theological assumptions, many of which Catholics don't share. For example, you think the story of the thief on the cross refutes Catholic teaching on the sacraments because any rule that God gives to us must bind him as well. But that's simply your opinion. It's not the product of any demonstrable reasoning. Many of the things you say Catholics "must" believe are not things that Catholics do or logically should believe.
You lose the historical argument both ways because of how you're using history. It has nothing to do with what I'm doing. On the one hand, you claim historical unanimity or continuity with regard to a certain belief or doctrine; therefore, any historical evidence contrary to that, and you lose. On the other, you claim infallible teaching originating from historical individuals and sources that have no claim to infallibility, and whose claims appear hundreds of years after the original apostles, being completely absent in or even contradicted by the apostle's infallible teaching (i.e. Scripture). So your historical appeal loses there as well.

If a rule that God gives us doesn't bind him to that rule as well, then that's true for all of God's rules: his rule for us that "Jesus is the way, truth, and the light and not one us can come to God except through him" would not be binding either, and thus it was completely superfluous for Jesus to come, suffer, and die for our sins. It would also mean that God does not have to fulfilll any covenant promises He makes to his people. But this is utterly false - God's eternal character is such that he can NOT go against anything he declares. If he does, he isn't God. Simply put, if God goes against something he declares, then he didn't declare it - man did.

You say that Catholics don't share these assumptions, but they're not assumptions, they're necessary implications. It logically must be believed, otherwise your whole belief system collapses. Necessary must mean necessary, or nothing is necessary. If you "must" eat Jesus' literal flesh, then you MUST, or there isn't anything you must do. God does not double-speak, but apparently Roman Catholicism tries to make Him do so. This diminishes the very nature and character of God.
Historical continuity does not mean historical unanimity. Those are very different things.

If God couldn't change anything he declared, we would still be bound by everything in the Old Testament law.
Umm, yes, that's why I said historical unanimity OR continuity.

God's Law has not been changed or revoked. Jesus eternally stands as the fulfillment of that Law, and those who believe in him are credited with the same standing. For those who don't believe, the Law is still very much in effect.
So it's a sin to eat shellfish if you don't believe in Jesus?
God did not hold Gentiles to his ceremonial and dietary laws. He does hold everyone to his moral law, though. To Jews who become Christians, eating shellfish is no longer a sin because Jesus fulfilled the entire Law in their stead and for them those foods have been declared "clean". To Jews who reject Jesus, however, since they are therefore still under the Law, yes, it is still a sin.

Are homosexual acts still a sin if you are a believer?
Yes, homosexual acts are still sinful because they violate the moral law.

But God didn't say in the New Testament that some foods are unclean, it's sinful to eat them, yet we need not worry because Jesus paid the price for our sins. He told Peter, "It is not for you to call anything profane, which God has made clean."

By your reasoning, this is God going against his own nature. If he says we're not to eat shellfish, or that we must be baptized, it logically and necessarily follows that there can be no exceptions.
God isn't going against his own nature if he first declares foods unclean, and then declares them clean after that requirement was fulfilled (in Jesus). There's a difference between God going against what he declares or being inconsistent with it, and God declaring something fulfilled and no longer in effect.

Therefore, it would be against God's nature if he says that one MUST literally eat his flesh and drink his blood or they are not saved.... but then save the thief on the cross, the sinful woman in Luke 7, and the house of Cornelius only moments afterward, all without them meeting that requirement, and before any declaration by him that such a requirement was fulfilled and done with. I don't know of any such declaration, do you? The obvious conclusion is that eating his flesh and drinking his blood are not literal (especially since he even explained that it wasn't).

If homosexual acts are still sinful for us believers, then it means that though we are not "under" the Law in that our eternal life does not depend on our perfect fulfillment of it, God has not un-declared the Law. It still convicts us of sin and of our falling short, and thus of our need of a Savior. Though we believers were once guilty under the Law, God changed that declaration to that of innocence and righteousness, because again, Jesus fulfilled that for us, and paid the penalty for us in full. It would have been, however, against God's nature to declare this if there was no fulfillment by Jesus.

I find it curious that a Roman Catholic would suggest they are no longer under Old Testament Law, when mortal sins are based on it, and committing such sins subjects them them to Hell regardless of what their faith is. If that doesn't say that you're still under the Law, I don't know what would.
Eating shellfish didn't become acceptable because Jesus paid the price for it. Otherwise, homosexual acts would have become acceptable too.

What was dietarily unclean because God said so is now clean because God says so. Likewise, baptism and the other sacraments are required because God says so...yet he is not bound by them.
God is bound by what he says so, otherwise he isn't God. He has to unbound himself by also saying so. Did he ever declare his "MUST" statement with regard to literally (as per Roman Catholicism) eating his flesh and drinking his blood as being no longer active? Did he declare such before saving the thief on the cross, the sinful woman in Luke 7, and the household of Cornelius? And then did he re-declare it for all of us?

A key thing to remember about shellfish vs homosexual acts is that the former was to be considered detestable "to YOU (Israel)", while the latter was detestable TO GOD. In other words, eating shellfish was a matter of purity for the Israeli people in order that from their line a perfect Lamb could come. Now that Jesus came, the purpose of it was fulfilled, and so afterwards it could be allowed. However, homosexual acts, like adultery, stealing, murder, etc. are a moral offense to God himself, thus an offense to his eternal nature, and therefore never allowed.
Sam Lowry
How long do you want to ignore this user?
BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Coke Bear said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

--> It works either way: Jesus comes back, then the millenial kingdom starts, and at the end of the millenial kingdom, the Great White Throne judgement begins. Jesus only came back once there. The sheep and goats are the people coming out of the tribulation before the millenial kingdom starts (premillenial view) where all believers were taken up (notice they went UP - Jesus didn't come down)
It sounds like you believe the "Rapture" that wasn't' first taught until the 19th century. You seem to not understand Jesus is COMING here. 1 Thess 4:16-17

For the Lord himself will come down from heaven, with a loud command, with the voice of the archangel and with the trumpet call of God, and the dead in Christ will rise first. After that, we who are still alive and are left will be caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air.


This is similar to the language in Matthew 8:34 used when those who went out of Jerusalem to meet Jesus when he entered the city.

This was the culture during those times. People when out of the city to greet the dignitary and welcome him into the city. We still do this today when a dignitary visits a country or area. People go out to meet them and welcome them to the country. ---> Jesus didn't return to the earth here. "In the clouds", "in the air".

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

---> But not all judged to determine eternal life. Believers will be judged for rewards.
The 9th chapter of Hebrews mentions NOTHING of rewards. You again are reading your theology into the texts. ---> I'm reading the whole of Scripture and harmonizing them. Scripture clearly teaches (even through the direct words of Jesus himself) that believers won't face the judgement to determine their eternal life.

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

---> if this is saying judgement to determine salvation, then how do you square this with Jesus' own words, "they (believers) will not come into judgement, but have passed from death to life"? You are continually trying to make Scripture contradict itself to make your views work.
Again, the Greek here for "judgement" is "krisin" which may be better translated "condemnation". The passage is stating that the believers will not be condemned to hell. It is not saying that they won't be judged. ---> you're losing focus again. I've said that believers will indeed face judgement, but for rewards, not for their eternal life.

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

The biggest example of your view contradicting scripture is that if the sheep and goats parable is about salvation for EVERYONE, then it's saying that salvation is purely by works. But this contradicts the entire gospel message of the Bible.
You still don't (won't want to) get it. This is not saying that we are saved by works. If one commits an unrepented mortal sin, then they will get the judgment they deserve. ---> which means they lose their salvation, ultimately meaning that their salvation was contingent upon their performance and merit, i.e. works.

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

---> are you going against Scripture and saying that believers CAN'T be assured?
Even St Paul wasn't assured when he said in 1 Cor 4:4 ---> So Paul is contradicting John?

I personally have nothing on my conscience, but that does not mean that I am innocent. It is the Lord who judges me. ---> faith in Jesus for one's salvation keeps you out of the judgement for your eternal life. Jesus is telling you this over and over in the Bible, yet you don't want to accept it, you'd rather wear the burden around your own neck. This means you're not trusting in him, which means you're not saved.
BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

---> I believe everything in John 6... so how did the thief on the cross eat a piece of Jesus' flesh and drink his blood? When did the sinful woman of Luke 7 eat Jesus flesh and drink his blood? When did the house of Cornelius eat Jesus' flesh and drink his blood? Obviously, eating his flesh and drinking his blood means believing in him. If you don't think so, then YOU don't believe John 6
Jesus said it 6 times. I know what more he had to do other than perform Eucharistic miracles, (which he has in every age) for you to take Him literally. It's said that you won't believe him. ---> I believe every word he said, and I believe that he said it six times to reinforce the importance of it - that he was going to be sacrificed, and through his sacrifice, we will have eternal life. That's the whole point of his "bread of life" analogy. He wasn't saying he was a literal piece of bread.

The Eucharist is one of the greatest gifts that the LORD has given to us. We get to take the Body, Blood, Soul, and Divinity of Jesus. You can't even imagine what you are missing. ---> We don't get to take his divinity. That's paganism.

I feel sorry for you. ---> that's because you don't understand the true gospel message, and are stuck in a man-made system

The thief had no chance to partake in the Eucharist. God doesn't ask us to do the impossible.---> Jesus literally said you must "eat his flesh" and "drink his blood". It would make him a liar, then.

The bible never mentions sinful woman nor the house of Cornelius again. When don't know whether they ate the Eucharist or not. ---> but Jesus already saved them, before they ever did. This shows that "eating Jesus' flesh" and "drinking his blood" to be saved is not literal.

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

"For this is the will of my Father, that everyone who looks on the Son and BELIEVES in him should have eternal life, and I will raise him up on the last day."

".... Truly, truly, I say to you, whoever BELIEVES has eternal life."
Believing is not just a mental ascent. It is also doing what he said to do. ---> it was, for the thief on the cross and the house of Cornelius.

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

---> they're literally touting their own merits.
You, again, are reading your biases into the text here. ---> "didn't we do this, didn't we do that" as touting their own merits isn't reading into it, it's reading IT.

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

I've done nothing BUT support my claims from biblical and church history. You are really boring me now.
You support your claims with YOUR biblical views. They have NO authority other than your own. Once again, I'll stand with Jesus and his Magisterium. ---> that's what it all comes down to with Roman Catholics - authority. I can show you logically, historically, even biblically that something is true, but instead of following Jesus when he said "why don't you judge for yourselves what is right?" (Luke 12:57), you give all your thinking to a group of fallible men. I've proven over and over how fallible they are. I really wish you'd wake up.


There's no such thing as scriptural teaching without interpretation. Your interpretation is based on your own thinking and that of other men who are just as fallible as anyone else.
That's obviously true in principle, but the parts in scripture we're talking about isn't an arcane puzzle. We can reason together what is the correct meaning. I believe in the perspicuity of scripture, for those able to read and who are willing to study and research. But if certain people claim infallibility, and then are shown to be wrong historically and with direct proof, there is no "interpretation" needed there to see that. You should not give your trust to them for the interpretation of Scripture when you don't understand it yourself. In the early days of the church, people had to trust their leaders. They had no choice. Today, we are blessed with our education and full access to the Bible (remember how the Roman Catholic Church tried to violently quash that?) and virtually all commentaries and the original language translations. We can read many different interpretations and watch and read many debates, and then come to our own understanding, and then reason with and debate each other. Jesus even said to to do this: "why don't you judge for yourselves what is right?"

So if you think my understanding of Scripture isn't correct, then explain. I've shown how Scripture, using reason and logic, does not support that the eating of Jesus' flesh is literal and that we can lose our salvation, to give just two examples. To sum them up - Jesus obviously did not mean to eat his flesh literally, because many people in the Bible were saved without having to do that, or before they were even able to. That's simple logic, it's not "interpretation". And if our names can be blot out of the book of life, then it would mean that Jesus would lose something he was given by the Father, which Jesus clearly says will never happen. Again, simple logic regarding a clear statement by Jesus, not an arcane puzzle from him. What do you disagree with here?
My problem with the historical debate is that we Catholics aren't allowed to win it. You present your evidence, we present ours, and any time it looks like we have a valid historical argument you revert to sola scriptura and say we're relying on fallible human authority. Heads you win, tails we lose.

The problem with your logical arguments is that they're based on your own theological assumptions, many of which Catholics don't share. For example, you think the story of the thief on the cross refutes Catholic teaching on the sacraments because any rule that God gives to us must bind him as well. But that's simply your opinion. It's not the product of any demonstrable reasoning. Many of the things you say Catholics "must" believe are not things that Catholics do or logically should believe.
You lose the historical argument both ways because of how you're using history. It has nothing to do with what I'm doing. On the one hand, you claim historical unanimity or continuity with regard to a certain belief or doctrine; therefore, any historical evidence contrary to that, and you lose. On the other, you claim infallible teaching originating from historical individuals and sources that have no claim to infallibility, and whose claims appear hundreds of years after the original apostles, being completely absent in or even contradicted by the apostle's infallible teaching (i.e. Scripture). So your historical appeal loses there as well.

If a rule that God gives us doesn't bind him to that rule as well, then that's true for all of God's rules: his rule for us that "Jesus is the way, truth, and the light and not one us can come to God except through him" would not be binding either, and thus it was completely superfluous for Jesus to come, suffer, and die for our sins. It would also mean that God does not have to fulfilll any covenant promises He makes to his people. But this is utterly false - God's eternal character is such that he can NOT go against anything he declares. If he does, he isn't God. Simply put, if God goes against something he declares, then he didn't declare it - man did.

You say that Catholics don't share these assumptions, but they're not assumptions, they're necessary implications. It logically must be believed, otherwise your whole belief system collapses. Necessary must mean necessary, or nothing is necessary. If you "must" eat Jesus' literal flesh, then you MUST, or there isn't anything you must do. God does not double-speak, but apparently Roman Catholicism tries to make Him do so. This diminishes the very nature and character of God.
Historical continuity does not mean historical unanimity. Those are very different things.

If God couldn't change anything he declared, we would still be bound by everything in the Old Testament law.
Umm, yes, that's why I said historical unanimity OR continuity.

God's Law has not been changed or revoked. Jesus eternally stands as the fulfillment of that Law, and those who believe in him are credited with the same standing. For those who don't believe, the Law is still very much in effect.
So it's a sin to eat shellfish if you don't believe in Jesus?
God did not hold Gentiles to his ceremonial and dietary laws. He does hold everyone to his moral law, though. To Jews who become Christians, eating shellfish is no longer a sin because Jesus fulfilled the entire Law in their stead and for them those foods have been declared "clean". To Jews who reject Jesus, however, since they are therefore still under the Law, yes, it is still a sin.

Are homosexual acts still a sin if you are a believer?
Yes, homosexual acts are still sinful because they violate the moral law.

But God didn't say in the New Testament that some foods are unclean, it's sinful to eat them, yet we need not worry because Jesus paid the price for our sins. He told Peter, "It is not for you to call anything profane, which God has made clean."

By your reasoning, this is God going against his own nature. If he says we're not to eat shellfish, or that we must be baptized, it logically and necessarily follows that there can be no exceptions.
God isn't going against his own nature if he first declares foods unclean, and then declares them clean after that requirement was fulfilled (in Jesus). There's a difference between God going against what he declares or being inconsistent with it, and God declaring something fulfilled and no longer in effect.

Therefore, it would be against God's nature if he says that one MUST literally eat his flesh and drink his blood or they are not saved.... but then save the thief on the cross, the sinful woman in Luke 7, and the house of Cornelius only moments afterward, all without them meeting that requirement, and before any declaration by him that such a requirement was fulfilled and done with. I don't know of any such declaration, do you? The obvious conclusion is that eating his flesh and drinking his blood are not literal (especially since he even explained that it wasn't).

If homosexual acts are still sinful for us believers, then it means that though we are not "under" the Law in that our eternal life does not depend on our perfect fulfillment of it, God has not un-declared the Law. It still convicts us of sin and of our falling short, and thus of our need of a Savior. Though we believers were once guilty under the Law, God changed that declaration to that of innocence and righteousness, because again, Jesus fulfilled that for us, and paid the penalty for us in full. It would have been, however, against God's nature to declare this if there was no fulfillment by Jesus.

I find it curious that a Roman Catholic would suggest they are no longer under Old Testament Law, when mortal sins are based on it, and committing such sins subjects them them to Hell regardless of what their faith is. If that doesn't say that you're still under the Law, I don't know what would.
Eating shellfish didn't become acceptable because Jesus paid the price for it. Otherwise, homosexual acts would have become acceptable too.

What was dietarily unclean because God said so is now clean because God says so. Likewise, baptism and the other sacraments are required because God says so...yet he is not bound by them.
God is bound by what he says so, otherwise he isn't God. He has to unbound himself by also saying so. Did he ever declare his "MUST" statement with regard to literally (as per Roman Catholicism) eating his flesh and drinking his blood as being no longer active? Did he declare such before saving the thief on the cross, the sinful woman in Luke 7, and the household of Cornelius? And then did he re-declare it for all of us?

A key thing to remember about shellfish vs homosexual acts is that the former was to be considered detestable "to YOU (Israel)", while the latter was detestable TO GOD. In other words, eating shellfish was a matter of purity for the Israeli people in order that from their line a perfect Lamb could come. Now that Jesus came, the purpose of it was fulfilled, and so afterwards it could be allowed. However, homosexual acts, like adultery, stealing, murder, etc. are a moral offense to God himself, thus an offense to his eternal nature, and therefore never allowed.
And likewise the requirement of baptism is a ceremonial requirement for Christians. There's nothing morally wrong with not having water sprinkled on your head. The thief on the cross didn't have the opportunity, and God does not require the impossible.
BusyTarpDuster2017
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Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Coke Bear said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

--> It works either way: Jesus comes back, then the millenial kingdom starts, and at the end of the millenial kingdom, the Great White Throne judgement begins. Jesus only came back once there. The sheep and goats are the people coming out of the tribulation before the millenial kingdom starts (premillenial view) where all believers were taken up (notice they went UP - Jesus didn't come down)
It sounds like you believe the "Rapture" that wasn't' first taught until the 19th century. You seem to not understand Jesus is COMING here. 1 Thess 4:16-17

For the Lord himself will come down from heaven, with a loud command, with the voice of the archangel and with the trumpet call of God, and the dead in Christ will rise first. After that, we who are still alive and are left will be caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air.


This is similar to the language in Matthew 8:34 used when those who went out of Jerusalem to meet Jesus when he entered the city.

This was the culture during those times. People when out of the city to greet the dignitary and welcome him into the city. We still do this today when a dignitary visits a country or area. People go out to meet them and welcome them to the country. ---> Jesus didn't return to the earth here. "In the clouds", "in the air".

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

---> But not all judged to determine eternal life. Believers will be judged for rewards.
The 9th chapter of Hebrews mentions NOTHING of rewards. You again are reading your theology into the texts. ---> I'm reading the whole of Scripture and harmonizing them. Scripture clearly teaches (even through the direct words of Jesus himself) that believers won't face the judgement to determine their eternal life.

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

---> if this is saying judgement to determine salvation, then how do you square this with Jesus' own words, "they (believers) will not come into judgement, but have passed from death to life"? You are continually trying to make Scripture contradict itself to make your views work.
Again, the Greek here for "judgement" is "krisin" which may be better translated "condemnation". The passage is stating that the believers will not be condemned to hell. It is not saying that they won't be judged. ---> you're losing focus again. I've said that believers will indeed face judgement, but for rewards, not for their eternal life.

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

The biggest example of your view contradicting scripture is that if the sheep and goats parable is about salvation for EVERYONE, then it's saying that salvation is purely by works. But this contradicts the entire gospel message of the Bible.
You still don't (won't want to) get it. This is not saying that we are saved by works. If one commits an unrepented mortal sin, then they will get the judgment they deserve. ---> which means they lose their salvation, ultimately meaning that their salvation was contingent upon their performance and merit, i.e. works.

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

---> are you going against Scripture and saying that believers CAN'T be assured?
Even St Paul wasn't assured when he said in 1 Cor 4:4 ---> So Paul is contradicting John?

I personally have nothing on my conscience, but that does not mean that I am innocent. It is the Lord who judges me. ---> faith in Jesus for one's salvation keeps you out of the judgement for your eternal life. Jesus is telling you this over and over in the Bible, yet you don't want to accept it, you'd rather wear the burden around your own neck. This means you're not trusting in him, which means you're not saved.
BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

---> I believe everything in John 6... so how did the thief on the cross eat a piece of Jesus' flesh and drink his blood? When did the sinful woman of Luke 7 eat Jesus flesh and drink his blood? When did the house of Cornelius eat Jesus' flesh and drink his blood? Obviously, eating his flesh and drinking his blood means believing in him. If you don't think so, then YOU don't believe John 6
Jesus said it 6 times. I know what more he had to do other than perform Eucharistic miracles, (which he has in every age) for you to take Him literally. It's said that you won't believe him. ---> I believe every word he said, and I believe that he said it six times to reinforce the importance of it - that he was going to be sacrificed, and through his sacrifice, we will have eternal life. That's the whole point of his "bread of life" analogy. He wasn't saying he was a literal piece of bread.

The Eucharist is one of the greatest gifts that the LORD has given to us. We get to take the Body, Blood, Soul, and Divinity of Jesus. You can't even imagine what you are missing. ---> We don't get to take his divinity. That's paganism.

I feel sorry for you. ---> that's because you don't understand the true gospel message, and are stuck in a man-made system

The thief had no chance to partake in the Eucharist. God doesn't ask us to do the impossible.---> Jesus literally said you must "eat his flesh" and "drink his blood". It would make him a liar, then.

The bible never mentions sinful woman nor the house of Cornelius again. When don't know whether they ate the Eucharist or not. ---> but Jesus already saved them, before they ever did. This shows that "eating Jesus' flesh" and "drinking his blood" to be saved is not literal.

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

"For this is the will of my Father, that everyone who looks on the Son and BELIEVES in him should have eternal life, and I will raise him up on the last day."

".... Truly, truly, I say to you, whoever BELIEVES has eternal life."
Believing is not just a mental ascent. It is also doing what he said to do. ---> it was, for the thief on the cross and the house of Cornelius.

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

---> they're literally touting their own merits.
You, again, are reading your biases into the text here. ---> "didn't we do this, didn't we do that" as touting their own merits isn't reading into it, it's reading IT.

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

I've done nothing BUT support my claims from biblical and church history. You are really boring me now.
You support your claims with YOUR biblical views. They have NO authority other than your own. Once again, I'll stand with Jesus and his Magisterium. ---> that's what it all comes down to with Roman Catholics - authority. I can show you logically, historically, even biblically that something is true, but instead of following Jesus when he said "why don't you judge for yourselves what is right?" (Luke 12:57), you give all your thinking to a group of fallible men. I've proven over and over how fallible they are. I really wish you'd wake up.


There's no such thing as scriptural teaching without interpretation. Your interpretation is based on your own thinking and that of other men who are just as fallible as anyone else.
That's obviously true in principle, but the parts in scripture we're talking about isn't an arcane puzzle. We can reason together what is the correct meaning. I believe in the perspicuity of scripture, for those able to read and who are willing to study and research. But if certain people claim infallibility, and then are shown to be wrong historically and with direct proof, there is no "interpretation" needed there to see that. You should not give your trust to them for the interpretation of Scripture when you don't understand it yourself. In the early days of the church, people had to trust their leaders. They had no choice. Today, we are blessed with our education and full access to the Bible (remember how the Roman Catholic Church tried to violently quash that?) and virtually all commentaries and the original language translations. We can read many different interpretations and watch and read many debates, and then come to our own understanding, and then reason with and debate each other. Jesus even said to to do this: "why don't you judge for yourselves what is right?"

So if you think my understanding of Scripture isn't correct, then explain. I've shown how Scripture, using reason and logic, does not support that the eating of Jesus' flesh is literal and that we can lose our salvation, to give just two examples. To sum them up - Jesus obviously did not mean to eat his flesh literally, because many people in the Bible were saved without having to do that, or before they were even able to. That's simple logic, it's not "interpretation". And if our names can be blot out of the book of life, then it would mean that Jesus would lose something he was given by the Father, which Jesus clearly says will never happen. Again, simple logic regarding a clear statement by Jesus, not an arcane puzzle from him. What do you disagree with here?
My problem with the historical debate is that we Catholics aren't allowed to win it. You present your evidence, we present ours, and any time it looks like we have a valid historical argument you revert to sola scriptura and say we're relying on fallible human authority. Heads you win, tails we lose.

The problem with your logical arguments is that they're based on your own theological assumptions, many of which Catholics don't share. For example, you think the story of the thief on the cross refutes Catholic teaching on the sacraments because any rule that God gives to us must bind him as well. But that's simply your opinion. It's not the product of any demonstrable reasoning. Many of the things you say Catholics "must" believe are not things that Catholics do or logically should believe.
You lose the historical argument both ways because of how you're using history. It has nothing to do with what I'm doing. On the one hand, you claim historical unanimity or continuity with regard to a certain belief or doctrine; therefore, any historical evidence contrary to that, and you lose. On the other, you claim infallible teaching originating from historical individuals and sources that have no claim to infallibility, and whose claims appear hundreds of years after the original apostles, being completely absent in or even contradicted by the apostle's infallible teaching (i.e. Scripture). So your historical appeal loses there as well.

If a rule that God gives us doesn't bind him to that rule as well, then that's true for all of God's rules: his rule for us that "Jesus is the way, truth, and the light and not one us can come to God except through him" would not be binding either, and thus it was completely superfluous for Jesus to come, suffer, and die for our sins. It would also mean that God does not have to fulfilll any covenant promises He makes to his people. But this is utterly false - God's eternal character is such that he can NOT go against anything he declares. If he does, he isn't God. Simply put, if God goes against something he declares, then he didn't declare it - man did.

You say that Catholics don't share these assumptions, but they're not assumptions, they're necessary implications. It logically must be believed, otherwise your whole belief system collapses. Necessary must mean necessary, or nothing is necessary. If you "must" eat Jesus' literal flesh, then you MUST, or there isn't anything you must do. God does not double-speak, but apparently Roman Catholicism tries to make Him do so. This diminishes the very nature and character of God.
Historical continuity does not mean historical unanimity. Those are very different things.

If God couldn't change anything he declared, we would still be bound by everything in the Old Testament law.
Umm, yes, that's why I said historical unanimity OR continuity.

God's Law has not been changed or revoked. Jesus eternally stands as the fulfillment of that Law, and those who believe in him are credited with the same standing. For those who don't believe, the Law is still very much in effect.
So it's a sin to eat shellfish if you don't believe in Jesus?
God did not hold Gentiles to his ceremonial and dietary laws. He does hold everyone to his moral law, though. To Jews who become Christians, eating shellfish is no longer a sin because Jesus fulfilled the entire Law in their stead and for them those foods have been declared "clean". To Jews who reject Jesus, however, since they are therefore still under the Law, yes, it is still a sin.

Are homosexual acts still a sin if you are a believer?
Yes, homosexual acts are still sinful because they violate the moral law.

But God didn't say in the New Testament that some foods are unclean, it's sinful to eat them, yet we need not worry because Jesus paid the price for our sins. He told Peter, "It is not for you to call anything profane, which God has made clean."

By your reasoning, this is God going against his own nature. If he says we're not to eat shellfish, or that we must be baptized, it logically and necessarily follows that there can be no exceptions.
God isn't going against his own nature if he first declares foods unclean, and then declares them clean after that requirement was fulfilled (in Jesus). There's a difference between God going against what he declares or being inconsistent with it, and God declaring something fulfilled and no longer in effect.

Therefore, it would be against God's nature if he says that one MUST literally eat his flesh and drink his blood or they are not saved.... but then save the thief on the cross, the sinful woman in Luke 7, and the house of Cornelius only moments afterward, all without them meeting that requirement, and before any declaration by him that such a requirement was fulfilled and done with. I don't know of any such declaration, do you? The obvious conclusion is that eating his flesh and drinking his blood are not literal (especially since he even explained that it wasn't).

If homosexual acts are still sinful for us believers, then it means that though we are not "under" the Law in that our eternal life does not depend on our perfect fulfillment of it, God has not un-declared the Law. It still convicts us of sin and of our falling short, and thus of our need of a Savior. Though we believers were once guilty under the Law, God changed that declaration to that of innocence and righteousness, because again, Jesus fulfilled that for us, and paid the penalty for us in full. It would have been, however, against God's nature to declare this if there was no fulfillment by Jesus.

I find it curious that a Roman Catholic would suggest they are no longer under Old Testament Law, when mortal sins are based on it, and committing such sins subjects them them to Hell regardless of what their faith is. If that doesn't say that you're still under the Law, I don't know what would.
Eating shellfish didn't become acceptable because Jesus paid the price for it. Otherwise, homosexual acts would have become acceptable too.

What was dietarily unclean because God said so is now clean because God says so. Likewise, baptism and the other sacraments are required because God says so...yet he is not bound by them.
God is bound by what he says so, otherwise he isn't God. He has to unbound himself by also saying so. Did he ever declare his "MUST" statement with regard to literally (as per Roman Catholicism) eating his flesh and drinking his blood as being no longer active? Did he declare such before saving the thief on the cross, the sinful woman in Luke 7, and the household of Cornelius? And then did he re-declare it for all of us?

A key thing to remember about shellfish vs homosexual acts is that the former was to be considered detestable "to YOU (Israel)", while the latter was detestable TO GOD. In other words, eating shellfish was a matter of purity for the Israeli people in order that from their line a perfect Lamb could come. Now that Jesus came, the purpose of it was fulfilled, and so afterwards it could be allowed. However, homosexual acts, like adultery, stealing, murder, etc. are a moral offense to God himself, thus an offense to his eternal nature, and therefore never allowed.
And likewise the requirement of baptism is a ceremonial requirement for Christians. There's nothing morally wrong with not having water sprinkled on your head. The thief on the cross didn't have the opportunity, and God does not require the impossible.
Nowhere did Jesus or his apostles explicitly declare that one "must" be water baptized for salvation. However, Jesus did explicitly declare that one "must" eat his flesh and drink his blood (literally, to Roman Catholics). And Jesus never declared this requirement to be no longer in effect before saving the thief, the sinful woman, and the household of Cornelius (the latter two of which it was NOT impossible for them to perform the requirement). You keep missing the fact that If God declares a "must", but he allows for situations where one must NOT (without ever declaring the requirement void), then God told a lie. Obviously, eating Jesus' flesh and drinking his blood was not literal, but rather had something to do with a person's faith in him whose body was to be sacrificed for sin.

If God did not ever require the impossible, then God would not have ever required keeping the Law perfectly for eternal life.
Realitybites
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I hope all of you had a blessed Feast of Pentecost.

Hint: it has absolutely nothing to do with being slain in the spirit, tongues, gold teeth, the latter rain, or anything else taught by Charles Parham or his descendants for the past 100 years.

The Holy Spirit Within You
Sam Lowry
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Reasonable assumptions don't make God's statement a lie. To say you must avail yourself of the sacrament of the Eucharist to strengthen you in righteousness, or the sacrament of Penance to absolve you of your sins, reasonably implies that you're going to be around long enough to need these things.

The requirement of baptism is found in John 3:5. Cornelius and his household were baptized, so I'm not sure what you're getting at there. The sinful woman's baptism isn't recorded, but there's no reason to assume it didn't happen if she became a follower of Christ. In fact one would assume it did.
Realitybites
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This bit of news...

"Martyr Anna Kaloyan was born into a Kurdish family. She lived in Rostov region and found Christ, came to the local parish and joined the Church. She became an active parishioner. Her parents were mad and beat her, with no success. Three days before the feast of Nativity of Christ her parents attacked her, broke her legs so she could not escape. Then the both parents started beating her with iron (the mother with wood), after every strike asking her to renounce Christ, but got a negative answer every time. Finally they bit her to death."

"Whosoever therefore shall confess me before men, him will I confess also before my Father which is in heaven." (Matthew 10:32)

Pray that we will all have the strength to follow her example should such a trial befall us.
BusyTarpDuster2017
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Sam Lowry said:

Reasonable assumptions don't make God's statement a lie. To say you must avail yourself of the sacrament of the Eucharist to strengthen you in righteousness, or the sacrament of Penance to absolve you of your sins, reasonably implies that you're going to be around long enough to need these things.

The requirement of baptism is found in John 3:5. Cornelius and his household were baptized, so I'm not sure what you're getting at there. The sinful woman's baptism isn't recorded, but there's no reason to assume it didn't happen if she became a follower of Christ. In fact one would assume it did.
Jesus didn't say that you MUST eat his flesh and drink his blood to "strengthen you in righteousness". He said that you must, or you are not saved to eternal life.

For those who are interested in coming to the truth instead of trying to wiggle out of being wrong, God saying something is a MUST while knowing that it really isn't would most certainly constitute a lie.

John 3:5 does not explicitly speak of water baptism. If it did, then once again, Jesus would be lying because he did not require it for the thief on the cross, the sinful woman of Luke 7, and the household of Cornelius before saving them. You obviously missed the very important part about the house of Cornelius being indwelled with the Holy Spirit (an indication of salvation as the apostle Paul attests to in Ephesians 1:13-14) BEFORE they were water baptized. Similarly, none of these literally ate Jesus' flesh and drank his blood before they were saved, either.
BUDOS
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"Reasonable assumptions" in this forum would seem to be a term subject to discussion, preferably in an adult and mature manner, as Paul encourages. In reading this particular passage, what is the reasonable assumption of who is/isn't included in the baptism of the "household" in question ?

From previous posts it seems that we may be pretty much in agreement that the "spirit" can manifest itself prior to or after baptism. If not you also have the option of including your position on that topic.
Sam Lowry
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BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

Reasonable assumptions don't make God's statement a lie. To say you must avail yourself of the sacrament of the Eucharist to strengthen you in righteousness, or the sacrament of Penance to absolve you of your sins, reasonably implies that you're going to be around long enough to need these things.

The requirement of baptism is found in John 3:5. Cornelius and his household were baptized, so I'm not sure what you're getting at there. The sinful woman's baptism isn't recorded, but there's no reason to assume it didn't happen if she became a follower of Christ. In fact one would assume it did.
Jesus didn't say that you MUST eat his flesh and drink his blood to "strengthen you in righteousness". He said that you must, or you are not saved to eternal life.

For those who are interested in coming to the truth instead of trying to wiggle out of being wrong, God saying something is a MUST while knowing that it really isn't would most certainly constitute a lie.

John 3:5 does not explicitly speak of water baptism. If it did, then once again, Jesus would be lying because he did not require it for the thief on the cross, the sinful woman of Luke 7, and the household of Cornelius before saving them. You obviously missed the very important part about the house of Cornelius being indwelled with the Holy Spirit (an indication of salvation as the apostle Paul attests to in Ephesians 1:13-14) BEFORE they were water baptized. Similarly, none of these literally ate Jesus' flesh and drank his blood before they were saved, either.
"Life within you" refers to the presence of Christ strengthening you through the Eucharist. Baptism is a ministerial act, with the priest acting in Jesus' name as an instrument of his forgiveness. As the source of that power and authority, Jesus has no need to baptize in Jesus' name. Likewise the Spirit is free to move where it will. Of course, the sinful woman and the house of Cornelius were still obligated to be baptized. So would the thief have been, if he'd had the opportunity.

You are still trying to understand salvation as though it were some alchemical formula that God has to get just right or else it will blow up in his face. That isn't how it works at all. It's a work of God by his own power in a manner of his own choosing.
Sam Lowry
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BUDOS said:

"Reasonable assumptions" in this forum would seem to be a term subject to discussion, preferably in an adult and mature manner, as Paul encourages. In reading this particular passage, what is the reasonable assumption of who is/isn't included in the baptism of the "household" in question ?

From previous posts it seems that we may be pretty much in agreement that the "spirit" can manifest itself prior to or after baptism. If not you also have the option of including your position on that topic.
My understanding is that his house included his wife, his children, and probably his servants as well.
BusyTarpDuster2017
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Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

Reasonable assumptions don't make God's statement a lie. To say you must avail yourself of the sacrament of the Eucharist to strengthen you in righteousness, or the sacrament of Penance to absolve you of your sins, reasonably implies that you're going to be around long enough to need these things.

The requirement of baptism is found in John 3:5. Cornelius and his household were baptized, so I'm not sure what you're getting at there. The sinful woman's baptism isn't recorded, but there's no reason to assume it didn't happen if she became a follower of Christ. In fact one would assume it did.
Jesus didn't say that you MUST eat his flesh and drink his blood to "strengthen you in righteousness". He said that you must, or you are not saved to eternal life.

For those who are interested in coming to the truth instead of trying to wiggle out of being wrong, God saying something is a MUST while knowing that it really isn't would most certainly constitute a lie.

John 3:5 does not explicitly speak of water baptism. If it did, then once again, Jesus would be lying because he did not require it for the thief on the cross, the sinful woman of Luke 7, and the household of Cornelius before saving them. You obviously missed the very important part about the house of Cornelius being indwelled with the Holy Spirit (an indication of salvation as the apostle Paul attests to in Ephesians 1:13-14) BEFORE they were water baptized. Similarly, none of these literally ate Jesus' flesh and drank his blood before they were saved, either.
"Life within you" refers to the presence of Christ strengthening you through the Eucharist. Baptism is a ministerial act, with the priest acting in Jesus' name as an instrument of his forgiveness. As the source of that power and authority, Jesus has no need to baptize in Jesus' name. Likewise the Spirit is free to move where it will. Of course, the sinful woman and the house of Cornelius were still obligated to be baptized. So would the thief have been, if he'd had the opportunity.

You are still trying to understand salvation as though it were some alchemical formula that God has to get just right or else it will blow up in his face. That isn't how it works at all. It's a work of God by his own power in a manner of his own choosing.
"Life within you" means true life, which is eternal life. You do not understand the "bread of life" discourse in John 6. Jesus is clearly associating the "eating of his flesh" and "drinking of his blood" with gaining eternal life, not merely an act to "strengthen" someone:

"I am the living bread that came down from heaven. If anyone eats of this bread, he will live forever. And the bread that I will give for the life of the world is my flesh..... Truly, truly, I say to you, unless you eat the flesh of the Son of Man and drink his blood, you have no life in you. Whoever feeds on my flesh and drinks my blood has eternal life,"

Pretty clear. There is just no honest reading there where "life in you" refers to anything but the same eternal life Jesus is repeatedly referring to throughout this whole discourse.

This isn't about God having to "get a formula right" about salvation; it's about God being true to his word that something MUST be, or he isn't God. The Spirit is free to move where it will - but not against God's decrees. This is what you're constantly trying to wiggle out of, but you can't.
BUDOS
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Sam Lowry said:

BUDOS said:

"Reasonable assumptions" in this forum would seem to be a term subject to discussion, preferably in an adult and mature manner, as Paul encourages. In reading this particular passage, what is the reasonable assumption of who is/isn't included in the baptism of the "household" in question ?

From previous posts it seems that we may be pretty much in agreement that the "spirit" can manifest itself prior to or after baptism. If not you also have the option of including your position on that topic.
My understanding is that his house included his wife, his children, and probably his servants as well.
I don't disagree, so let me make that clear. My question relates to the children. When I see a 5, 7 or 9 year old come forward to be baptized I wonder if this is appropriate. Do they really know what they are doing, and what it means relating to their accountability as a Christian? I've had discussions with church leaders and they rarely ant to tackle it.
Oldbear83
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"I've had discussions with church leaders "

In those discussions, are you trying to win a debate, prove a point, or gain wisdom?

Sadly, few are much interested in the third option.
Sam Lowry
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BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

Reasonable assumptions don't make God's statement a lie. To say you must avail yourself of the sacrament of the Eucharist to strengthen you in righteousness, or the sacrament of Penance to absolve you of your sins, reasonably implies that you're going to be around long enough to need these things.

The requirement of baptism is found in John 3:5. Cornelius and his household were baptized, so I'm not sure what you're getting at there. The sinful woman's baptism isn't recorded, but there's no reason to assume it didn't happen if she became a follower of Christ. In fact one would assume it did.
Jesus didn't say that you MUST eat his flesh and drink his blood to "strengthen you in righteousness". He said that you must, or you are not saved to eternal life.

For those who are interested in coming to the truth instead of trying to wiggle out of being wrong, God saying something is a MUST while knowing that it really isn't would most certainly constitute a lie.

John 3:5 does not explicitly speak of water baptism. If it did, then once again, Jesus would be lying because he did not require it for the thief on the cross, the sinful woman of Luke 7, and the household of Cornelius before saving them. You obviously missed the very important part about the house of Cornelius being indwelled with the Holy Spirit (an indication of salvation as the apostle Paul attests to in Ephesians 1:13-14) BEFORE they were water baptized. Similarly, none of these literally ate Jesus' flesh and drank his blood before they were saved, either.
"Life within you" refers to the presence of Christ strengthening you through the Eucharist. Baptism is a ministerial act, with the priest acting in Jesus' name as an instrument of his forgiveness. As the source of that power and authority, Jesus has no need to baptize in Jesus' name. Likewise the Spirit is free to move where it will. Of course, the sinful woman and the house of Cornelius were still obligated to be baptized. So would the thief have been, if he'd had the opportunity.

You are still trying to understand salvation as though it were some alchemical formula that God has to get just right or else it will blow up in his face. That isn't how it works at all. It's a work of God by his own power in a manner of his own choosing.
"Life within you" means true life, which is eternal life. You do not understand the "bread of life" discourse in John 6. Jesus is clearly associating the "eating of his flesh" and "drinking of his blood" with gaining eternal life, not merely an act to "strengthen" someone:

"I am the living bread that came down from heaven. If anyone eats of this bread, he will live forever. And the bread that I will give for the life of the world is my flesh..... Truly, truly, I say to you, unless you eat the flesh of the Son of Man and drink his blood, you have no life in you. Whoever feeds on my flesh and drinks my blood has eternal life,"

Pretty clear. There is just no honest reading there where "life in you" refers to anything but the same eternal life Jesus is repeatedly referring to throughout this whole discourse.

This isn't about God having to "get a formula right" about salvation; it's about God being true to his word that something MUST be, or he isn't God. The Spirit is free to move where it will - but not against God's decrees. This is what you're constantly trying to wiggle out of, but you can't.
We've covered that. The Catholic Church doesn't hold these requirements as absolutes in the way that you suppose. There's nothing to wiggle out of. It's just a thing we disagree about.
Sam Lowry
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BUDOS said:

Sam Lowry said:

BUDOS said:

"Reasonable assumptions" in this forum would seem to be a term subject to discussion, preferably in an adult and mature manner, as Paul encourages. In reading this particular passage, what is the reasonable assumption of who is/isn't included in the baptism of the "household" in question ?

From previous posts it seems that we may be pretty much in agreement that the "spirit" can manifest itself prior to or after baptism. If not you also have the option of including your position on that topic.
My understanding is that his house included his wife, his children, and probably his servants as well.
I don't disagree, so let me make that clear. My question relates to the children. When I see a 5, 7 or 9 year old come forward to be baptized I wonder if this is appropriate. Do they really know what they are doing, and what it means relating to their accountability as a Christian? I've had discussions with church leaders and they rarely ant to tackle it.
I would say there are several references to entire households being baptized. It was even common for three or four generations to live in the same house. There's never any reference to an age limit, so it seems likely that children were being baptized.
BUDOS
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Oldbear83 said:

"I've had discussions with church leaders "

In those discussions, are you trying to win a debate, prove a point, or gain wisdom?

Sadly, few are much interested in the third option.
I would say that the third option comes the closest. Over the years I was seeking their opinions, hoping to gain some insight, so that I might become more settled in my own belief system. Apparently the Bible, as it is in other areas, is not very specific about children being baptized. I don't think it's something to over-think. To me it's a topic for discussion, not one to get in an argument with anyone and start demeaning someone else because one's interpretation or opinion is different than another. In my opinion, it's not a point that anyone can necessarily prove, at least via Biblical verses.
BUDOS
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Sam Lowry said:

BUDOS said:

Sam Lowry said:

BUDOS said:

"Reasonable assumptions" in this forum would seem to be a term subject to discussion, preferably in an adult and mature manner, as Paul encourages. In reading this particular passage, what is the reasonable assumption of who is/isn't included in the baptism of the "household" in question ?

From previous posts it seems that we may be pretty much in agreement that the "spirit" can manifest itself prior to or after baptism. If not you also have the option of including your position on that topic.
My understanding is that his house included his wife, his children, and probably his servants as well.
I don't disagree, so let me make that clear. My question relates to the children. When I see a 5, 7 or 9 year old come forward to be baptized I wonder if this is appropriate. Do they really know what they are doing, and what it means relating to their accountability as a Christian? I've had discussions with church leaders and they rarely ant to tackle it.
I would say there are several references to entire households being baptized. It was even common for three or four generations to live in the same house. There's never any reference to an age limit, so it seems likely that children were being baptized.
Do you believe the child needs to understand what baptism represents, &/or understand what believing in Christ and being a Christian means? If an 8 day old baby is baptized is that the same as an 8 year old? Is there an age/[point of accountability? Should there be? Can a 5, 6 or 8 year old routinely understand? I don't ask these questions to start one of those word fights where we try to bury with each other in non-Christian conduct. I would just like your thoughts and questions on the subject, even scenarios. Such a discussion might help me better fine tune my own thoughts so can then evaluate how they might or might not fit within my core religious beliefs.
Sam Lowry
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BUDOS said:

Sam Lowry said:

BUDOS said:

Sam Lowry said:

BUDOS said:

"Reasonable assumptions" in this forum would seem to be a term subject to discussion, preferably in an adult and mature manner, as Paul encourages. In reading this particular passage, what is the reasonable assumption of who is/isn't included in the baptism of the "household" in question ?

From previous posts it seems that we may be pretty much in agreement that the "spirit" can manifest itself prior to or after baptism. If not you also have the option of including your position on that topic.
My understanding is that his house included his wife, his children, and probably his servants as well.
I don't disagree, so let me make that clear. My question relates to the children. When I see a 5, 7 or 9 year old come forward to be baptized I wonder if this is appropriate. Do they really know what they are doing, and what it means relating to their accountability as a Christian? I've had discussions with church leaders and they rarely ant to tackle it.
I would say there are several references to entire households being baptized. It was even common for three or four generations to live in the same house. There's never any reference to an age limit, so it seems likely that children were being baptized.
Do you believe the child needs to understand what baptism represents, &/or understand what believing in Christ and being a Christian means? If an 8 day old baby is baptized is that the same as an 8 year old? Is there an age/[point of accountability? Should there be? Can a 5, 6 or 8 year old routinely understand? I don't ask these questions to start one of those word fights where we try to bury with each other in non-Christian conduct. I would just like your thoughts and questions on the subject, even scenarios. Such a discussion might help me better fine tune my own thoughts so can then evaluate how they might or might not fit within my core religious beliefs.
I appreciate your question. The Catholic Church believes in infant baptism, so to us it makes no difference whether they understand. We do this so the sacrament can remove original sin and bring them into a state of grace. After they reach the age of accountability, they receive religious education and other sacraments, leading up to the Sacrament of Confirmation. That is when they make their decision with a full understanding.
BUDOS
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I understand that this may not fit with the forum topic. However, when I heard this song recently, if just kept playing over and over in my mind and I felt that I had to share it, which I don't normally do. For those who read this, I hope it speaks to you, and perhaps someone close to you.

Lyrics of "The Voice Of The Silent" by Redeemed Quartet

Hes looking out the window, the tears run down his face
He's trying to remember the things hed like to say
The jokes he used to tell them, the tales he used to spin
He longs for just a moment to tell them once again
He lost his voice last summer, now sitting in this chair
He's handing out a smile, he only gets a stare
The lessons he could teach them, they'll never hear him say
If only he could show them the way to live today

chorus
He loved to say it, but he never got the chance
The world all around wouldnt give a second glance
Behind the silence theres a beating heart, it's true
The voice of the silent is calling out to you

Her tiny little eyes are grinning up at me
Her hand around my finger, shes alive and she can breathe
But in a darkened alley, an unborn baby's cry
Is smothered as a mother signs away her childs life
A million little voices that you may never hear
A million precious heartbeats, does anybody care?
So many take advantage of children in this land
Behind the awful silence will no one take a stand?

They would tell you, but they never got the chance
The world all around wouldn't give a second glance
Behind the silence was a heartbeat, theres no doubt
The voice of the silent too long has been shut out
The old and the young, we tossed them both away
We're killing tomorrow, neglecting yesterday
Who will stand up if you never do?

The voice of the silent is calling out to you
The voice of the silent is calling out to you
Writer(s): Benjamin Timothy Duncan, Nathanael Paul Duncan
BUDOS
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Sam Lowry said:

BUDOS said:

Sam Lowry said:

BUDOS said:

Sam Lowry said:

BUDOS said:

"Reasonable assumptions" in this forum would seem to be a term subject to discussion, preferably in an adult and mature manner, as Paul encourages. In reading this particular passage, what is the reasonable assumption of who is/isn't included in the baptism of the "household" in question ?

From previous posts it seems that we may be pretty much in agreement that the "spirit" can manifest itself prior to or after baptism. If not you also have the option of including your position on that topic.
My understanding is that his house included his wife, his children, and probably his servants as well.
I don't disagree, so let me make that clear. My question relates to the children. When I see a 5, 7 or 9 year old come forward to be baptized I wonder if this is appropriate. Do they really know what they are doing, and what it means relating to their accountability as a Christian? I've had discussions with church leaders and they rarely ant to tackle it.
I would say there are several references to entire households being baptized. It was even common for three or four generations to live in the same house. There's never any reference to an age limit, so it seems likely that children were being baptized.
Do you believe the child needs to understand what baptism represents, &/or understand what believing in Christ and being a Christian means? If an 8 day old baby is baptized is that the same as an 8 year old? Is there an age/[point of accountability? Should there be? Can a 5, 6 or 8 year old routinely understand? I don't ask these questions to start one of those word fights where we try to bury with each other in non-Christian conduct. I would just like your thoughts and questions on the subject, even scenarios. Such a discussion might help me better fine tune my own thoughts so can then evaluate how they might or might not fit within my core religious beliefs.
I appreciate your question. The Catholic Church believes in infant baptism, so to us it makes no difference whether they understand. We do this so the sacrament can remove original sin and bring them into a state of grace. After they reach the age of accountability, they receive religious education and other sacraments, leading up to the Sacrament of Confirmation. That is when they make their decision with a full understanding.
I had forgot that the Catholic Church practices infant baptism, although I would think that this practice is symbolic. I don't understand how that brings them into a state of grace, but I say that only to get more information, not to judge. The rest of the response appears similar to Lutheranism and probably others. A question I have is that once a teenager completes confirmation, do you think there is pressure to state that he/she "ready" when they in fact may not be or at least not yet sure? Your infant baptism is something I am not comfortable with at this point, but that may be due to it being different than my understanding. Give me more when you have time.
Sam Lowry
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BUDOS said:

Sam Lowry said:

BUDOS said:

Sam Lowry said:

BUDOS said:

Sam Lowry said:

BUDOS said:

"Reasonable assumptions" in this forum would seem to be a term subject to discussion, preferably in an adult and mature manner, as Paul encourages. In reading this particular passage, what is the reasonable assumption of who is/isn't included in the baptism of the "household" in question ?

From previous posts it seems that we may be pretty much in agreement that the "spirit" can manifest itself prior to or after baptism. If not you also have the option of including your position on that topic.
My understanding is that his house included his wife, his children, and probably his servants as well.
I don't disagree, so let me make that clear. My question relates to the children. When I see a 5, 7 or 9 year old come forward to be baptized I wonder if this is appropriate. Do they really know what they are doing, and what it means relating to their accountability as a Christian? I've had discussions with church leaders and they rarely ant to tackle it.
I would say there are several references to entire households being baptized. It was even common for three or four generations to live in the same house. There's never any reference to an age limit, so it seems likely that children were being baptized.
Do you believe the child needs to understand what baptism represents, &/or understand what believing in Christ and being a Christian means? If an 8 day old baby is baptized is that the same as an 8 year old? Is there an age/[point of accountability? Should there be? Can a 5, 6 or 8 year old routinely understand? I don't ask these questions to start one of those word fights where we try to bury with each other in non-Christian conduct. I would just like your thoughts and questions on the subject, even scenarios. Such a discussion might help me better fine tune my own thoughts so can then evaluate how they might or might not fit within my core religious beliefs.
I appreciate your question. The Catholic Church believes in infant baptism, so to us it makes no difference whether they understand. We do this so the sacrament can remove original sin and bring them into a state of grace. After they reach the age of accountability, they receive religious education and other sacraments, leading up to the Sacrament of Confirmation. That is when they make their decision with a full understanding.
I had forgot that the Catholic Church practices infant baptism, although I would think that this practice is symbolic. I don't understand how that brings them into a state of grace, but I say that only to get more information, not to judge. The rest of the response appears similar to Lutheranism and probably others. A question I have is that once a teenager completes confirmation, do you think there is pressure to state that he/she "ready" when they in fact may not be or at least not yet sure? Your infant baptism is something I am not comfortable with at this point, but that may be due to it being different than my understanding. Give me more when you have time.
Thanks, I'll do that.
Realitybites
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BUDOS said:

Your infant baptism is something I am not comfortable with at this point, but that may be due to it being different than my understanding. Give me more when you have time.


Budos, confirmation (practiced by Lutherans and Roman Catholics) and age of accountability doctrine are two sides of the same coin. The former is an attempt to institute an age of accountability ceremony for a child who was only partially brought into the church (baptized but subsequently denied communion). The latter It is an attempt to try and excuse the sins of a child rapidly moving towards adolescence who was never brought into the church by baptism because we all know that Fuzziekiah 14:6 says that all kids and dogs go to heaven.

Here's how the church of the first millenium (Orthodoxy) does it. Babies are baptized and receive chrismation and begin to commune. They are brought into the full life of the church from the beginning.

"And it came to pass, that, when Elisabeth heard the salutation of Mary, the babe leaped in her womb; and Elisabeth was filled with the Holy Ghost:" (Luke 14:1)

We should not underestimate the spiritual sensitivities of babies whose souls just left the factory.
BusyTarpDuster2017
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Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

Reasonable assumptions don't make God's statement a lie. To say you must avail yourself of the sacrament of the Eucharist to strengthen you in righteousness, or the sacrament of Penance to absolve you of your sins, reasonably implies that you're going to be around long enough to need these things.

The requirement of baptism is found in John 3:5. Cornelius and his household were baptized, so I'm not sure what you're getting at there. The sinful woman's baptism isn't recorded, but there's no reason to assume it didn't happen if she became a follower of Christ. In fact one would assume it did.
Jesus didn't say that you MUST eat his flesh and drink his blood to "strengthen you in righteousness". He said that you must, or you are not saved to eternal life.

For those who are interested in coming to the truth instead of trying to wiggle out of being wrong, God saying something is a MUST while knowing that it really isn't would most certainly constitute a lie.

John 3:5 does not explicitly speak of water baptism. If it did, then once again, Jesus would be lying because he did not require it for the thief on the cross, the sinful woman of Luke 7, and the household of Cornelius before saving them. You obviously missed the very important part about the house of Cornelius being indwelled with the Holy Spirit (an indication of salvation as the apostle Paul attests to in Ephesians 1:13-14) BEFORE they were water baptized. Similarly, none of these literally ate Jesus' flesh and drank his blood before they were saved, either.
"Life within you" refers to the presence of Christ strengthening you through the Eucharist. Baptism is a ministerial act, with the priest acting in Jesus' name as an instrument of his forgiveness. As the source of that power and authority, Jesus has no need to baptize in Jesus' name. Likewise the Spirit is free to move where it will. Of course, the sinful woman and the house of Cornelius were still obligated to be baptized. So would the thief have been, if he'd had the opportunity.

You are still trying to understand salvation as though it were some alchemical formula that God has to get just right or else it will blow up in his face. That isn't how it works at all. It's a work of God by his own power in a manner of his own choosing.
"Life within you" means true life, which is eternal life. You do not understand the "bread of life" discourse in John 6. Jesus is clearly associating the "eating of his flesh" and "drinking of his blood" with gaining eternal life, not merely an act to "strengthen" someone:

"I am the living bread that came down from heaven. If anyone eats of this bread, he will live forever. And the bread that I will give for the life of the world is my flesh..... Truly, truly, I say to you, unless you eat the flesh of the Son of Man and drink his blood, you have no life in you. Whoever feeds on my flesh and drinks my blood has eternal life,"

Pretty clear. There is just no honest reading there where "life in you" refers to anything but the same eternal life Jesus is repeatedly referring to throughout this whole discourse.

This isn't about God having to "get a formula right" about salvation; it's about God being true to his word that something MUST be, or he isn't God. The Spirit is free to move where it will - but not against God's decrees. This is what you're constantly trying to wiggle out of, but you can't.
We've covered that. The Catholic Church doesn't hold these requirements as absolutes in the way that you suppose. There's nothing to wiggle out of. It's just a thing we disagree about.
Do you believe that when Jesus said that no one can come to God except through him, it means absolutely no one?
Coke Bear
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BUDOS said:

I would say there are several references to entire households being baptized. It was even common for three or four generations to live in the same house. There's never any reference to an age limit, so it seems likely that children were being baptized.Do you believe the child needs to understand what baptism represents, &/or understand what believing in Christ and being a Christian means? If an 8 day old baby is baptized is that the same as an 8 year old? Is there an age/point of accountability? Should there be? Can a 5, 6 or 8 year old routinely understand? I don't ask these questions to start one of those word fights where we try to bury with each other in non-Christian conduct. I would just like your thoughts and questions on the subject, even scenarios. Such a discussion might help me better fine tune my own thoughts so can then evaluate how they might or might not fit within my core religious beliefs.
BUDOS - I too appreciate your honest asking of these questions.

I'll try to piggy-back onto Sam's and Realitybites excellent answers.

Catholics (Orthodox, Lutheran, Anglicans, Methodists, etc.) believe in the doctrine of original sin.

Original sin isn't something that we necessarily have. It's something we lack. We lack salvific grace. When we are baptized, we are infused with (salvific) grace, our souls are indelibly marked, and we become adoptive sons and daughters of God.

You ask a great question about the 8-day old verses the 8-yo. When we look at Matthew 9:1-2, we read ...

Jesus stepped into a boat, crossed over and came to his own town. Some men brought to him a paralyzed man, lying on a mat. When Jesus saw their faith, he said to the man, "Take heart, son; your sins are forgiven."

We Catholics (Orthodox, Lutheran, Anglicans, etc.) believe the faith of the parents (guardians), like the faith of the paralyzed man's friends, are enough for Jesus to forgive our sins.

For the Jews (males), it was circumcision 8 days after birth that made them parts of God's family. This is no longer required. Now ALL (male and female) can be part of God's covenant.

St Paul references the link between circumcision and baptism in Col 2:11-12 -

In him you were also circumcised with a circumcision not performed by human hands. Your whole self ruled by the flesh was put off when you were circumcised by Christ, having been buried with him in baptism, in which you were also raised with him through your faith in the working of God, who raised him from the dead.

One of the earliest debates in the Church was not IF to baptizing infants was proper, but whether they should even wait the 8-days. Infant mortality was much higher then. The Church knew the importance of getting someone baptized.


Jesus. apostles, not the Bible ever said that baptism was symbolic. On the contrary, it is VERY specific in stating that baptism washed away sin and saves you ...

1 Pet. 3:21 - Baptism, which corresponds to this (referring to Noah, the ark, and the water), now saves you, not as a removal of dirt from the body but as an appeal to God for a clear conscience, through the resurrection of Jesus Christ,

Acts 2:38 - And Peter said to them, "Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins; and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.

Please keep asking great questions. You may not agree with what the Church teaches, but you will hopefully understand what the Church teaches and why it does certain things.

God Bless!
Sam Lowry
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BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

Reasonable assumptions don't make God's statement a lie. To say you must avail yourself of the sacrament of the Eucharist to strengthen you in righteousness, or the sacrament of Penance to absolve you of your sins, reasonably implies that you're going to be around long enough to need these things.

The requirement of baptism is found in John 3:5. Cornelius and his household were baptized, so I'm not sure what you're getting at there. The sinful woman's baptism isn't recorded, but there's no reason to assume it didn't happen if she became a follower of Christ. In fact one would assume it did.
Jesus didn't say that you MUST eat his flesh and drink his blood to "strengthen you in righteousness". He said that you must, or you are not saved to eternal life.

For those who are interested in coming to the truth instead of trying to wiggle out of being wrong, God saying something is a MUST while knowing that it really isn't would most certainly constitute a lie.

John 3:5 does not explicitly speak of water baptism. If it did, then once again, Jesus would be lying because he did not require it for the thief on the cross, the sinful woman of Luke 7, and the household of Cornelius before saving them. You obviously missed the very important part about the house of Cornelius being indwelled with the Holy Spirit (an indication of salvation as the apostle Paul attests to in Ephesians 1:13-14) BEFORE they were water baptized. Similarly, none of these literally ate Jesus' flesh and drank his blood before they were saved, either.
"Life within you" refers to the presence of Christ strengthening you through the Eucharist. Baptism is a ministerial act, with the priest acting in Jesus' name as an instrument of his forgiveness. As the source of that power and authority, Jesus has no need to baptize in Jesus' name. Likewise the Spirit is free to move where it will. Of course, the sinful woman and the house of Cornelius were still obligated to be baptized. So would the thief have been, if he'd had the opportunity.

You are still trying to understand salvation as though it were some alchemical formula that God has to get just right or else it will blow up in his face. That isn't how it works at all. It's a work of God by his own power in a manner of his own choosing.
"Life within you" means true life, which is eternal life. You do not understand the "bread of life" discourse in John 6. Jesus is clearly associating the "eating of his flesh" and "drinking of his blood" with gaining eternal life, not merely an act to "strengthen" someone:

"I am the living bread that came down from heaven. If anyone eats of this bread, he will live forever. And the bread that I will give for the life of the world is my flesh..... Truly, truly, I say to you, unless you eat the flesh of the Son of Man and drink his blood, you have no life in you. Whoever feeds on my flesh and drinks my blood has eternal life,"

Pretty clear. There is just no honest reading there where "life in you" refers to anything but the same eternal life Jesus is repeatedly referring to throughout this whole discourse.

This isn't about God having to "get a formula right" about salvation; it's about God being true to his word that something MUST be, or he isn't God. The Spirit is free to move where it will - but not against God's decrees. This is what you're constantly trying to wiggle out of, but you can't.
We've covered that. The Catholic Church doesn't hold these requirements as absolutes in the way that you suppose. There's nothing to wiggle out of. It's just a thing we disagree about.
Do you believe that when Jesus said that no one can come to God except through him, it means absolutely no one?
You're probably not going to like this. The answer is yes, but some may be saved without direct knowledge of him. Those who lived before Christ or who never heard of him, whose sins he also paid for, can still come to a saving faith through the inner working of the Spirit.
BusyTarpDuster2017
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Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

Reasonable assumptions don't make God's statement a lie. To say you must avail yourself of the sacrament of the Eucharist to strengthen you in righteousness, or the sacrament of Penance to absolve you of your sins, reasonably implies that you're going to be around long enough to need these things.

The requirement of baptism is found in John 3:5. Cornelius and his household were baptized, so I'm not sure what you're getting at there. The sinful woman's baptism isn't recorded, but there's no reason to assume it didn't happen if she became a follower of Christ. In fact one would assume it did.
Jesus didn't say that you MUST eat his flesh and drink his blood to "strengthen you in righteousness". He said that you must, or you are not saved to eternal life.

For those who are interested in coming to the truth instead of trying to wiggle out of being wrong, God saying something is a MUST while knowing that it really isn't would most certainly constitute a lie.

John 3:5 does not explicitly speak of water baptism. If it did, then once again, Jesus would be lying because he did not require it for the thief on the cross, the sinful woman of Luke 7, and the household of Cornelius before saving them. You obviously missed the very important part about the house of Cornelius being indwelled with the Holy Spirit (an indication of salvation as the apostle Paul attests to in Ephesians 1:13-14) BEFORE they were water baptized. Similarly, none of these literally ate Jesus' flesh and drank his blood before they were saved, either.
"Life within you" refers to the presence of Christ strengthening you through the Eucharist. Baptism is a ministerial act, with the priest acting in Jesus' name as an instrument of his forgiveness. As the source of that power and authority, Jesus has no need to baptize in Jesus' name. Likewise the Spirit is free to move where it will. Of course, the sinful woman and the house of Cornelius were still obligated to be baptized. So would the thief have been, if he'd had the opportunity.

You are still trying to understand salvation as though it were some alchemical formula that God has to get just right or else it will blow up in his face. That isn't how it works at all. It's a work of God by his own power in a manner of his own choosing.
"Life within you" means true life, which is eternal life. You do not understand the "bread of life" discourse in John 6. Jesus is clearly associating the "eating of his flesh" and "drinking of his blood" with gaining eternal life, not merely an act to "strengthen" someone:

"I am the living bread that came down from heaven. If anyone eats of this bread, he will live forever. And the bread that I will give for the life of the world is my flesh..... Truly, truly, I say to you, unless you eat the flesh of the Son of Man and drink his blood, you have no life in you. Whoever feeds on my flesh and drinks my blood has eternal life,"

Pretty clear. There is just no honest reading there where "life in you" refers to anything but the same eternal life Jesus is repeatedly referring to throughout this whole discourse.

This isn't about God having to "get a formula right" about salvation; it's about God being true to his word that something MUST be, or he isn't God. The Spirit is free to move where it will - but not against God's decrees. This is what you're constantly trying to wiggle out of, but you can't.
We've covered that. The Catholic Church doesn't hold these requirements as absolutes in the way that you suppose. There's nothing to wiggle out of. It's just a thing we disagree about.
Do you believe that when Jesus said that no one can come to God except through him, it means absolutely no one?
You're probably not going to like this. The answer is yes, but some may be saved without direct knowledge of him. Those who lived before Christ or who never heard of him, whose sins he also paid for, can still come to a saving faith through the inner working of the Spirit.
So, yes, here you believe it means absolutely no one. So why are you picking and choosing when Jesus means what he says?
Realitybites
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BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Do you believe that when Jesus said that no one can come to God except through him, it means absolutely no one?


Yes.

However, I don't strictly limit the way you come to Jesus to responding to an altar call and praying the sinners prayer in the formulaic way you do.

Nor do I think that people who have come to such cannot change their minds and voluntarily drop out of the race they are running. Others walk for a bit and start running again. While Christ ligtened our burden by freeing us from the demands of Jewish ceremonial law, he did demand we pick up our crosses and follow him. Crosses are heavy.

There is far more to the spiritual life than

Altar call > Sinners prayer > Salvation > Eternal securiy.

You and I both know that some 50% of Evangelical youth group kids who reach the age of accountability, make a profession of faith, and are baptized drop out of the faith entirely once they get to young adulthood.

Your incorrect doctrine forces you to say they are either (1) still saved or (2) they made a false profession and were never saved.

Rather than taking Saint Dismas' experience as normative for all Christians you need to believe what Jesus says in Luke 12:48 "For everyone to whom much is given, from him much will be required; and to whom much has been committed, of him they will ask the more."

Read the Synaxarion and learn more about the lives of the Saints and how their paths to Jesus differed.
BusyTarpDuster2017
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Realitybites said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Do you believe that when Jesus said that no one can come to God except through him, it means absolutely no one?


Yes.

However, I don't strictly limit the way you come to Jesus to responding to an altar call and praying the sinners prayer in the formulaic way you do.

Nor do I think that people who have come to such cannot change their minds and voluntarily drop out of the race they are running. Others stop running for a bit and start running again. While Christ ligtened our burden by freeing us from the demands of Jewish ceremonial law, he did demand we pick up our crosses and follow him. Crosses are heavy.

There is far more to the spiritual life than

Altar call > Sinners prayer > Salvation > Eternal securiy.

You and I both know that some 50% of Evangelical youth group kids who reach the age of accountability, make a profession of faith, and are baptized drop out of the faith entirely once they get to young adulthood.

Your incorrect doctrine forces you to say they are either (1) still saved or (2) they made a false profession and were never saved.

Rather than taking Saint Dismas' experienxe as normative for all Christians you need to believe what Jesus says in Luke 12:48 "For everyone to whom much is given, from him much will be required; and to whom much has been committed, of him they will ask the more."

Read the Synaxarion and learn more about the lives of the Saints and how their paths to Jesus differed.
You constantly argue a strawman version of Protestantism, reducing it to mere cartoonish "altar calls". Whether someone comes to faith at an altar call or sitting at home alone watching tv, or anywhere else or doing anything else at the time - none of that matters. What matters is what happens in their heart. If they come to true faith in Jesus, they are saved. No church, pastor, priest, bishop, patriarch, pope, water baptism, Eucharist, or any sacrament needed. Those with true faith, it will show in their life, given time and opportunity. The Holy Spirit works in them, sanctifying them. Those who drop out never had true faith. You and I both know that young kids raised in an evangelical church environment will say and do what the other kids are doing, as they would in any other environment. I don't understand why you insist that it's a "false doctrine" because people will profess something of themselves that really isn't true. That's human nature. Peer pressure and acceptance is a huge motivating factor at that age.

Regarding those saints and their paths to Jesus - did ANY of them get told by Jesus directly that they were saved? In scripture, there are some who were. Did they achieve their salvation by "carrying their cross", or by their personal merit/performance, i.e. works? No. This lines up completely with the gospel message - that everyone who believes has eternal life, that salvation is by grace through faith, not by works. If what Jesus means when he says that those who are "given much, much will be required" is that they need more than just their faith for their salvation, that they also need to perform for it - this then falsifies the biblical teaching of the gospel. So obviously there is something wrong with this interpretation.

Realitybites
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Quote:

You and I both know that young kids raised in an evangelical church environment will say and do what the other kids are doing, as they would in any other environment. I don't understand why you insist that it's a "false doctrine" because people will profess something of themselves that really isn't true. That's human nature. Peer pressure and acceptance is a huge motivating factor at that age.


If you're professing a doctrine that is forcing you to accuse 50% of those who are coming to Christ, obtaining eternal life, and having eternal security of bearing false witness because of peer pressure, it is probably time to rethink that doctrine.
BusyTarpDuster2017
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Realitybites said:

Quote:

You and I both know that young kids raised in an evangelical church environment will say and do what the other kids are doing, as they would in any other environment. I don't understand why you insist that it's a "false doctrine" because people will profess something of themselves that really isn't true. That's human nature. Peer pressure and acceptance is a huge motivating factor at that age.


If you're professing a doctrine that is forcing you to accuse 50% of those who are coming to Christ, obtaining eternal life, and having eternal security of bearing false witness because of peer pressure, it is probably time to rethink that doctrine.
Who's "accusing"? Wasn't it YOU? 50% was YOUR number. I offered an explanation that is no different than what the Bible offers: "They went out from us, but they were not of us; for if they had been of us, they would have continued with us. But they went out, that it might become plain that they all are not of us."

Was John "accusing" as well?
xfrodobagginsx
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Please take the time to read this first post if you haven't yet
xfrodobagginsx
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Happy Sunday. Find a good Bible believing church and attend.
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