BaylorFTW said:
TexasScientist said:
Didn't Jesus begin his ministry and end his ministry preaching to the Israelites? The same ones to whom supposedly was given the laws of the OT? You don't have those sacrifices today in the Judeo-Christian traditions, except for some, because their moral views have changed concomitant with time and convenience.
If you are going to claim Jesus did not come for the Gentiles as well as the Jews. You are going to need to explain why Jesus helped the Canaanite woman's daughter. You will have to explain why the Ethiopian eunuch was allowed to convert along with the Roman centurion Cornelius. Not to mention you will have to prove that Paul was a liar when he said otherwise in Galatians 3:28-29 and Colossians 3:11. You will also have to explain away John 3:16 and Genesis 12:3. And you will have to explain other things as well.
For Jews, the sacrifices ended with the destruction of the temple. No temple to do sacrifices. But Christians believe Jesus was their sacrifice as the lamb of God. He was the blood sacrifice for the new covenant. This is partly why Christians don't follow the prior dietary and governmental laws given in the Old Testament. Jesus fulfilled those laws.
It has nothing to do with a change in morality. That is an example of applying modern ideas to the past culture.
TexasScientist said:
So what you're advocating is moral relativism. It's ok to stone one's child for disrespect, or a woman caught in adultery under God's law to the Jews, or it is implied by God that you shouldn't stone a woman unless you are without sin. It is right in one scenario, but may be wrong in another. In my view, it is immoral in either case. A consistently moral god would have never condoned stoning in the first place. What you are essentially advocating is for morals given and enforced by a theocracy.
No, you are failing to see the difference between the crime and punishment. The crime is wrong regardless of the time and place because it is immoral. However, the punishment can vary depending on the culture and its structure. We don't stone kids because we are not Jews under a Jewish theocracy. But we still discipline disrespectful kids. And in examples where "Christians" tolerate a change in morality, they are not living by the faith. It is not immoral to discipline disrespectful children or to view adultery as a moral wrong. Your issue is you think some of the punishments were too severe but that is just your subjective opinion.
TexasScientist said:
Everyone's morals are subjective, flexible and can change with time and culture. Christianity is no different. What is acceptable has changed with time. The practice of stoning is a good example. U. S. Christians embracing of Donald Trump is another. Evidence based morality, taking into consideration harm and the well being of others, leaves you in the position to improve with better knowledge. There would be a lot less chaos in the Middle East if they embraced evidence based humanistic beliefs.
God's morals are absolute and not subjective. You are making a lot of assertions here but I will just challenge this last one. Prove to us that there would be a lot less chaos in the Middle East if they embraced evidence based humanistic beliefs.
TexasScientist said:
How is it moral to stone someone as punishment on the one hand, and immoral to stone them on the other? It is either immoral or not. Yahweh is morally inconsistent.
I would suggest your read my post and this post again because you are not getting it for some reason.
TexasScientist said:
Rather, you have determined slavery, and rape and torturing small children is wrong and have projected those morals onto Yahweh. When, in fact, the OT and NT both condone slavery. There is no biblical condemnation of slavery. In the OT Yahweh not only condones rape and torturing small children, but actually orders it. This is supposedly the same god. Today most Jews and Christians would consider these practices immoral. Did religion, god, or both change? Supposedly, the same god is the god of Islam, but I don't need to go there to make the point.
As a Christian, Jesus tells us the second commandment above all others is to love your neighbor as thyself. Tell me how I can justify chattel slavery, rape and torturing of small children for fun in that context. Also, you are misunderstanding Paul's message in the book of Philemon regarding slavery and not taking into account the circumstances of them being under the Roman empire where slavery was commonplace.
God's morality does not change. Men may fail to honor his morality. Christians don't believe the god of Islam is God. They believe Allah was a demon and Muhammad was a false prophet.
TexasScientist said:
In no way does it follow that if objective morality exists, then there must be an ultimate lawgiver or god. They do not have to be related at all.
Ok, prove it. Where did the objective morality come from and why does it exist if there was not an ultimate lawgiver?
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If you are going to claim Jesus did not come for the Gentiles as well as the Jews. You are going to need to explain why Jesus helped the Canaanite woman's daughter. You will have to explain why the Ethiopian eunuch was allowed to convert along with the Roman centurion Cornelius. Not to mention you will have to prove that Paul was a liar when he said otherwise in Galatians 3:28-29 and Colossians 3:11. You will also have to explain away John 3:16 and Genesis 12:3. And you will have to explain other things as well.
For Jews, the sacrifices ended with the destruction of the temple. No temple to do sacrifices. But Christians believe Jesus was their sacrifice as the lamb of God. He was the blood sacrifice for the new covenant. This is partly why Christians don't follow the prior dietary and governmental laws given in the Old Testament. Jesus fulfilled those laws.
It has nothing to do with a change in morality. That is an example of applying modern ideas to the past culture.
You're missing my point. It's not about Jesus message to both Jews and Gentiles. Didn't Jesus, the unchanging deity, preach a different moral code that the law is no longer moral - i.e. that it is no longer moral to stone someone to death? Or was he just preaching situational morals, and that stoning is still a valid option? After all the Jews and Christians still embrace the OT as God's word and direction, yet they pick and choose what they want in order to conform to what is morally acceptable today. Or, did God change his mind?
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No, you are failing to see the difference between the crime and punishment. The crime is wrong regardless of the time and place because it is immoral. However, the punishment can vary depending on the culture and its structure. We don't stone kids because we are not Jews under a Jewish theocracy. But we still discipline disrespectful kids. And in examples where "Christians" tolerate a change in morality, they are not living by the faith. It is not immoral to discipline disrespectful children or to view adultery as a moral wrong. Your issue is you think some of the punishments were too severe but that is just your subjective opinion.
Crime and punishment is not necessarily the issue. If your god is morally consistent, why is it morally ok to stone someone for adultery or parental disrespect, and yet in the case of the adulteress brought to Jesus, he overturns stoning her? Don't Christians believe the OT is God's true word, and is valid for instruction, validation, and reproof? Isn't the God of Abraham unchanging? Is it still ok stone someone for violation of Biblical law, or did God change his mind? Clearly, the god of Abraham is morally inconsistent with the Jews and Christians, not to mention Muslims. The Bible, from cover to cover, is morally inconsistent and contradictory. And yes, moral punishment often depends upon culture and its structure. Culture and structure is a product of men (sometimes women). That's why it is important that morality should be humanistic science of morality benchmarks, as opposed to theocratic (possibly arbitrarily) derived morals based upon some cleric, prophet, evangelist, or clergy's interpretation and pronouncement of divine revelation to their particular brand of mythology.
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God's morals are absolute and not subjective. You are making a lot of assertions here but I will just challenge this last one. Prove to us that there would be a lot less chaos in the Middle East if they embraced evidence based humanistic beliefs.
Of course God's morals are subjective and not absolute. The adulteress is a great example, otherwise he would have ordered her to be stoned. The best evidence is the countries that are not theocracies have greater regard for human rights. Show me a theocracy that is considered a monument to human rights.
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As a Christian, Jesus tells us the second commandment above all others is to love your neighbor as thyself. Tell me how I can justify chattel slavery, rape and torturing of small children for fun in that context. Also, you are misunderstanding Paul's message in the book of Philemon regarding slavery and not taking into account the circumstances of them being under the Roman empire where slavery was commonplace.
God's morality does not change. Men may fail to honor his morality. Christians don't believe the god of Islam is God. They believe Allah was a demon and Muhammad was a false prophet.
That's my point. The god of the OT condones those things, and even orders it. The god of the NT, never condemns slavery either. It is considered an accepted part of the culture and as you say commonplace. Why didn't a moral god outright condemn slavery?
God's morality is unchanging only in the aspect his morality is inconsistent. Christians may or may not believe the god of Islam is god, but it is clear the god of Islam is in fact the same god of the Jews, which presumably is the god of Christians. Although, among early Christians, there was to some a question about whether the god of the Jews and Christians were the same. There is no evidence for demons, much less that Allah or Yahweh for that matter is a demon. Although, there is plenty of evidence they are myths.
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Ok, prove it. Where did the objective morality come from and why does it exist if there was not an ultimate lawgiver?
Morality is a product of evolutionary psychology. It comes from the cultural need to provide stability, and order within large groups. Objective morality is empirically derived from a humanistic science of morality approach, taking into consideration the well being of others. Do no harm.