BusyTarpDuster2017 said:
Your "repetition" argument for deciding when things should be taken literally was destroyed by Jesus' repetition of "feed my sheep" three times, which you obviously don't take literally. It's that simple. You're trying to "save" your argument through ad hoc explanations. This is a moving goal post argument.
Repetition isn't the point here. You're committing a false-equivalence fallacy and at the same time showing that you obviously don't understand that passage. They are not of the same kind. Jesus' three-fold asking of Peter, "Do you love me?", was the opportunity for Peter to redeem himself from his three-fold denial. "The Feed my lambs, tend my sheep, feed my sheep," are Jesus' telling Peter to take of the Church. "Tending" and "feeding" are metaphors for governing and teaching. Peter is to lead and teach his apostles and the Church.
The repetition in John 6 only hammers home the point that Jesus was stressing as indicated by his ratcheting up his language.
BusyTarpDuster2017 said:
If you're arguing that Jesus saying "this is my body" is to be taken literally, then Jesus is also a literal door, a literal shepherd, an actual gate, and the actual temple of Jerusalem. You're picking and choosing which is literal.
No, we've discussed this before, but you have forgotten or chosen to not accept that NO one believed that Jesus was speaking literally when he said, "I am the gate" or "I am the vine." The same 1000's of disciples left him because that could not accept that he was speaking literally. They knew that the Bread of Life discourse was NOT Jewish hyperbole.
BusyTarpDuster2017 said:
To answer your question, he would have to say in Scripture that the bread in every communion/Eucharist ceremony that would ever happen thereafter will become his actual flesh and blood. Which of course, he doesn't. Technically, he only said "this is my body" about that one particular loaf of bread he was holding in the Last Supper. And understanding what Jesus really meant, based on all the other times he spoke of himself symbolically in that matter, it's clear that believing his actual flesh was in that loaf is to not understanding what he meant. It would also be making Jesus asking his disciples to break the Law, which forbade the eating of blood. That would mean Jesus sinned, which of course he never did, and he could not do because then he wouldn't be the perfect sacrifice for sin; therefore it wasn't actual blood. It's all so simple. It's amazing how much your church authority has a grip on you, not allowing you to think logically for yourself.
It actually amazing how you've been warped with anti-Catholic rhetoric. It's almost Jack Chick-level. Your "church" is less than 200 years old, and you have "figured out" what the entire world got wrong since the beginning of the Church. If my beliefs could only date back a couple hundred years, I'd want to investigate where they came from and why they were made up.
You are not understanding what transubstantiation truly is. Here are two paragraphs from the Catechism that state what we believe:
CCC 1374 - In the most blessed sacrament of the Eucharist the body and blood, together with the soul and divinity, of our Lord Jesus Christ and, therefore, the whole Christ is truly, really, and substantially contained. This presence is called "real" - by which is not intended to exclude the other types of presence as if they could not be "real" too, but because it is presence in the fullest sense: that is to say, it is a substantial presence by which Christ, God and man, makes himself wholly and entirely present.
CCC 1376 - "…that by the consecration of the bread and wine there takes place a change of the whole substance of the bread into the substance of the body of Christ our Lord and of the whole substance of the wine into the substance of his blood. This change, the holy Catholic Church has fittingly and properly called transubstantiation.
BusyTarpDuster2017 said:
Regarding your first point - "salvation" and eternal life are the same. Only those who are saved have eternal life. There is only one condition for salvation, and Jesus is telling you right there - "eat his flesh". If that is literal, then it contradicts everything the bible tells us about salvation, as I listed for you in an earlier post. Therefore, it is logically obvious that the literal interpretation can't be true. This isn't difficult, but you're making it difficult because you are so indoctrinated by your church authority.
No. Salvation and eternal life are NOT the same in Catholic theology. Salvation "refers to being saved from sin and its consequences through Jesus Christ, as emphasized in Romans 5:12-21 and Acts 4:12. It involves repentance, faith, and baptism."
Eternal life is reward promised to those who obey God's commands and live a life of faith working through love (Galatians 5:6, Matthew 25:34-40).
That means doing his will and following him. He says to eat his flesh, and you want to disagree with him. Why would you disagree with Jesus? Don't you want to follow what he says?
BusyTarpDuster2017 said:
I'm not dodging anything. The church I attend or don't attend has nothing to do with the truth I'm speaking. The "church" is the entire body of believers in Jesus. It isn't an official organization. There is no line of popes. History actually shows that the early church in Rome had a fragmented authority structure. Even in Revelation, Jesus sends his message to the separate "angels" of each church, not the pope, because there wasn't one. There was no singular human leader of Jesus' church. JESUS is the leader of his church, not the guy you call "Holy Father" (blasphemy) even after Jesus told you not to.
"Holy Father" lol Seriously, I expected better from you on this point. The old Matthew 23:9 "argument" against the Catholic church? Come on, man? Are you just trolling with this one? You are better than this sophomoric argument. I'd expect this from someone not as well read as you. But, I'll address it …
Surely your son doesn't call you "father" or you don't celebrate Father's Day. That would go against what Jesus said. Jesus also states to call no man "rabbi" which means "teacher" or "doctor". I suppose you NEVER called someone doctor or teacher. For that would be against what Jesus said.
Now, let's look at a few verses:
Matthew 3:9 Jesus calls Abraham "father". Does your Jesus commit the hypocrisy of "Do as I say, but not as I do?"
Romans 4:16-17 St. Paul called Abraham "father" of all of us. Is Paul going against what Jesus said?
1 Cor 4:14-15 St Paul again, I have become your father in Christ.
Clearly, in Matthew 23-9, Jesus is chastising the Pharisees for seeking honorific titles like father or rabbi. He's certainly not prohibiting the use of those terms.
The Pope is the Bishop of Rome. The title, "Pope" was first used for the bishops in the West in the 3rd century. It was reserved for the Bishop of Rome in 440 AD. The Bishop of Rome has always been the leader of the Church. The Church can trace back the Bishop of Rome all the way back to from Francis, Benedict XVI, JPII … Sixtus, Alexander, Evaristus, Clement (mentioned in Philippians 4:3), Anacletus, Linus, and originally Peter.
All 266 of them.
Can your church even go back to the 20th century to name it's leaders and founder? That was less than 25 years ago. Send me a link to your list.