Female shooter at Nashville Christian school

50,413 Views | 669 Replies | Last: 1 yr ago by Doc Holliday
90sBear
How long do you want to ignore this user?
He Hate Me said:

90sBear said:

He Hate Me said:

90sBear said:

He Hate Me said:

90sBear said:

He Hate Me said:

90sBear said:

Oldbear83 said:

Contrario: " I personally don't view"

And that's the key phrase.

And yet again, only the Second Amendment specifically has the phrase 'shall not be infringed'.

So I ask yet again, what does that phrase mean in that context, and why is it specifically written that way?



So for argument's sake let's say the phrase was written (based upon the available technology and community standards of the day) to state that there should be no restrictions placed on anyone possessing any weapon that they knew to exist.

Do you believe that should be the case today?
Yes. The purpose was to keep us free from tyrants. Like the kind of tyrants that prosecute political opponents and put healthy, law-abiding people under house arrest without just cause over virus and coerce them to put a needle in their arm over scary unseen particle.
You didn't answer the question.

Do you believe that should be the case today?


The first word of my response was yes.
The Gun Control Act of 1968 restricted, among other things, the following:
Minors buying guns
Felons possessing guns
Mentally unstable people possessing guns

Add to this the possession of chemical weapons and plutonium/uranium/etc. is also illegal.

Do you agree or disagree with these restrictions placed upon US Citizens 2nd amendment rights?
No. I think that if you are capable of service to a militia or to the military, there should be no restriction on your right to own any kind of weapon. Minors, felons, and the mentally ill are all unfit for militia or military service. So, those classes of people are necessarily are banned from weapons possession by a plain reading of the First Amendment.
So you do believe in the restrictions placed in 1968. Note that those restrictions were not necessarily in place prior to that law. So the SECOND amendment has nothing to do with it.

Does your interpretation include the idea that all who are "unfit for military service" are excluded from 2nd amendment rights? If not, then fitness for military service is not a valid argument.

Also, to clarify, in your opinion chemical weapons and plutonium should be made available to any adult citizen who is not a felon or officially diagnosed with a mental disability?
Yep. If you can afford plutonium, then you get plutonium. And I said, that I believe in the Second Amendment as it is written. If you are not fit for militia or military service, then you are outside the scope of the Second Amendment. As you represent the "restrictions" of the 1968 act, those "restrictions" concerning felons, minors, and the mentally ill are consistent with the Second Amendment.
Gotcha.
Plutonium and chemical weapons: yes
Women who are far enough along pregnant: no
Physically disabled: no
Elderly: no

I can honestly say I am glad your viewpoint on the 2nd amendment and subsequent laws regarding possession of weapons is not how the US operates and I would be willing to bet more than 99% of the population agrees with me.
Jack Bauer
How long do you want to ignore this user?
This is just f'ing sick.

Wrecks Quan Dough
How long do you want to ignore this user?
90sBear said:

He Hate Me said:

90sBear said:

He Hate Me said:

90sBear said:

He Hate Me said:

90sBear said:

He Hate Me said:

90sBear said:

Oldbear83 said:

Contrario: " I personally don't view"

And that's the key phrase.

And yet again, only the Second Amendment specifically has the phrase 'shall not be infringed'.

So I ask yet again, what does that phrase mean in that context, and why is it specifically written that way?



So for argument's sake let's say the phrase was written (based upon the available technology and community standards of the day) to state that there should be no restrictions placed on anyone possessing any weapon that they knew to exist.

Do you believe that should be the case today?
Yes. The purpose was to keep us free from tyrants. Like the kind of tyrants that prosecute political opponents and put healthy, law-abiding people under house arrest without just cause over virus and coerce them to put a needle in their arm over scary unseen particle.
You didn't answer the question.

Do you believe that should be the case today?


The first word of my response was yes.
The Gun Control Act of 1968 restricted, among other things, the following:
Minors buying guns
Felons possessing guns
Mentally unstable people possessing guns

Add to this the possession of chemical weapons and plutonium/uranium/etc. is also illegal.

Do you agree or disagree with these restrictions placed upon US Citizens 2nd amendment rights?
No. I think that if you are capable of service to a militia or to the military, there should be no restriction on your right to own any kind of weapon. Minors, felons, and the mentally ill are all unfit for militia or military service. So, those classes of people are necessarily are banned from weapons possession by a plain reading of the First Amendment.
So you do believe in the restrictions placed in 1968. Note that those restrictions were not necessarily in place prior to that law. So the SECOND amendment has nothing to do with it.

Does your interpretation include the idea that all who are "unfit for military service" are excluded from 2nd amendment rights? If not, then fitness for military service is not a valid argument.

Also, to clarify, in your opinion chemical weapons and plutonium should be made available to any adult citizen who is not a felon or officially diagnosed with a mental disability?
Yep. If you can afford plutonium, then you get plutonium. And I said, that I believe in the Second Amendment as it is written. If you are not fit for militia or military service, then you are outside the scope of the Second Amendment. As you represent the "restrictions" of the 1968 act, those "restrictions" concerning felons, minors, and the mentally ill are consistent with the Second Amendment.
Gotcha.
Plutonium and chemical weapons: yes
Women who are far enough along pregnant: no
Physically disabled: no
Elderly: no

I can honestly say I am glad your viewpoint on the 2nd amendment and subsequent laws regarding possession of weapons is not how the US operates and I would be willing to bet more than 99% of the population agrees with me.
Nobody cares how you feel about my views. However, you did ask about mine.
Oldbear83
How long do you want to ignore this user?
D. C. Bear said:

Oldbear83 said:

D. C. Bear said:

Oldbear83 said:

Contrario: " I personally don't view"

And that's the key phrase.

And yet again, only the Second Amendment specifically has the phrase 'shall not be infringed'.

So I ask yet again, what does that phrase mean in that context, and why is it specifically written that way?



First Amendment: "Congress shall make no law." This is a distinction without a difference.

So you think the Founders were, what , riffing when they chose the language they did?


I do not.

All those volumes of The Federalist, for example, show there was a great deal of debate about these words.

So once again, why was that specific phrase included in the Second Amendment?

They could have used "Congress shall make no law,,, abridging the right to bear arms," as they did with speech, and it wouldn't have a different meaning. If you think it would, please explain how you would draw a legal distinction between "Congress shall make no law, abridging the right to bear arms" and" the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed."
So you won't answer the question.

That's part of my point, actually.

We all know why that phrase was included.

The first battle of the Revolutionary War was to keep British (i.e. government) troops from seizing a privately-owned cannon.

The references in the Constitution to 'Letters of Marque' demonstrate that the founders not only understood that there were private individuals with their own warships, but set up rules on how to contract with such individuals to assist the US government when needed. The implication is that, yes, if you could make your own warship, your own tank, your own armed aircraft, if you could be responsible in your actions the founders had no worries about you.

There are a great many essays and quotes on the mind of our founders regarding weapons, and they are strongly consistent.

The Founders plainly refused to let the government decide what weapons the citizens could have for their use.

Every law restricting guns, ammunition by number, size or type is a slap in the face of the Founders of our country.

Right about now, some here will be hyperventilating over mass shootings, terrorism and every other phobia they have rolling around in their skulls. Some will claim my observation somehow excuses every crime committed with a weapon.

Our nation's founders had no trouble recognizing the inherent right of citizens to keep and use arms, while at the same time holding people accountable for their actions. During the Whiskey Rebellion, for example, the government under Washington arrested rioters who rose up against the government and seized the weapons they used, while notably not restricting the use and ownership of weapons by people not involved in the uprising.

We have plainly seen that gun laws do not work. Those damnable 'gun free zones' at schools, for example, only disarm innocent people who could otherwise defend themselves, and allow murderers to plan where they alone would be armed. Rules on magazine sizes, on how scary a gun can be and still be legal, or whether a person has to prove to the government's pleasure that they meet the definition of "need" are all useless in protecting innocent people, and serve only a tyrant's goals.

We need a long, serious discussion on guns, starting with the fact that the American right to a gun is - beyond argument - absolute unless that person has demonstrated by their actions that they are a threat, and if so, it is their specific actions which bring the consequence of arrest and incarceration, not the gun.
That which does not kill me, will try again and get nastier
D. C. Bear
How long do you want to ignore this user?
Oldbear83 said:

D. C. Bear said:

Oldbear83 said:

D. C. Bear said:

Oldbear83 said:

Contrario: " I personally don't view"

And that's the key phrase.

And yet again, only the Second Amendment specifically has the phrase 'shall not be infringed'.

So I ask yet again, what does that phrase mean in that context, and why is it specifically written that way?



First Amendment: "Congress shall make no law." This is a distinction without a difference.

So you think the Founders were, what , riffing when they chose the language they did?


I do not.

All those volumes of The Federalist, for example, show there was a great deal of debate about these words.

So once again, why was that specific phrase included in the Second Amendment?

They could have used "Congress shall make no law,,, abridging the right to bear arms," as they did with speech, and it wouldn't have a different meaning. If you think it would, please explain how you would draw a legal distinction between "Congress shall make no law, abridging the right to bear arms" and" the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed."
So you won't answer the question.

That's part of my point, actually.

We all know why that phrase was included.

The first battle of the Revolutionary War was to keep British (i.e. government) troops from seizing a privately-owned cannon.

The references in the Constitution to 'Letters of Marque' demonstrate that the founders not only understood that there were private individuals with their own warships, but set up rules on how to contract with such individuals to assist the US government when needed. The implication is that, yes, if you could make your own warship, your own tank, your own armed aircraft, if you could be responsible in your actions the founders had no worries about you.

There are a great many essays and quotes on the mind of our founders regarding weapons, and they are strongly consistent.

The Founders plainly refused to let the government decide what weapons the citizens could have for their use.

Every law restricting guns, ammunition by number, size or type is a slap in the face of the Founders of our country.

Right about now, some here will be hyperventilating over mass shootings, terrorism and every other phobia they have rolling around in their skulls. Some will claim my observation somehow excuses every crime committed with a weapon.

Our nation's founders had no trouble recognizing the inherent right of citizens to keep and use arms, while at the same time holding people accountable for their actions. During the Whiskey Rebellion, for example, the government under Washington arrested rioters who rose up against the government and seized the weapons they used, while notably not restricting the use and ownership of weapons by people not involved in the uprising.

We have plainly seen that gun laws do not work. Those damnable 'gun free zones' at schools, for example, only disarm innocent people who could otherwise defend themselves, and allow murderers to plan where they alone would be armed. Rules on magazine sizes, on how scary a gun can be and still be legal, or whether a person has to prove to the government's pleasure that they meet the definition of "need" are all useless in protecting innocent people, and serve only a tyrant's goals.

We need a long, serious discussion on guns, starting with the fact that the American right to a gun is - beyond argument - absolute unless that person has demonstrated by their actions that they are a threat, and if so, it is their specific actions which bring the consequence of arrest and incarceration, not the gun.
Let me explain: The use of the term "shall not be infringed" is neither unique nor noteworthy when comparing the right to bear arms with other rights outlined in the Bill of Rights.

I don't know why the used that phrase instead of any other similar language and it really doesn't matter.
Oldbear83
How long do you want to ignore this user?
"it really doesn't matter."

It damn well does.
That which does not kill me, will try again and get nastier
Wangchung
How long do you want to ignore this user?
D. C. Bear said:

Oldbear83 said:

D. C. Bear said:

Oldbear83 said:

D. C. Bear said:

Oldbear83 said:

Contrario: " I personally don't view"

And that's the key phrase.

And yet again, only the Second Amendment specifically has the phrase 'shall not be infringed'.

So I ask yet again, what does that phrase mean in that context, and why is it specifically written that way?



First Amendment: "Congress shall make no law." This is a distinction without a difference.

So you think the Founders were, what , riffing when they chose the language they did?


I do not.

All those volumes of The Federalist, for example, show there was a great deal of debate about these words.

So once again, why was that specific phrase included in the Second Amendment?

They could have used "Congress shall make no law,,, abridging the right to bear arms," as they did with speech, and it wouldn't have a different meaning. If you think it would, please explain how you would draw a legal distinction between "Congress shall make no law, abridging the right to bear arms" and" the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed."
So you won't answer the question.

That's part of my point, actually.

We all know why that phrase was included.

The first battle of the Revolutionary War was to keep British (i.e. government) troops from seizing a privately-owned cannon.

The references in the Constitution to 'Letters of Marque' demonstrate that the founders not only understood that there were private individuals with their own warships, but set up rules on how to contract with such individuals to assist the US government when needed. The implication is that, yes, if you could make your own warship, your own tank, your own armed aircraft, if you could be responsible in your actions the founders had no worries about you.

There are a great many essays and quotes on the mind of our founders regarding weapons, and they are strongly consistent.

The Founders plainly refused to let the government decide what weapons the citizens could have for their use.

Every law restricting guns, ammunition by number, size or type is a slap in the face of the Founders of our country.

Right about now, some here will be hyperventilating over mass shootings, terrorism and every other phobia they have rolling around in their skulls. Some will claim my observation somehow excuses every crime committed with a weapon.

Our nation's founders had no trouble recognizing the inherent right of citizens to keep and use arms, while at the same time holding people accountable for their actions. During the Whiskey Rebellion, for example, the government under Washington arrested rioters who rose up against the government and seized the weapons they used, while notably not restricting the use and ownership of weapons by people not involved in the uprising.

We have plainly seen that gun laws do not work. Those damnable 'gun free zones' at schools, for example, only disarm innocent people who could otherwise defend themselves, and allow murderers to plan where they alone would be armed. Rules on magazine sizes, on how scary a gun can be and still be legal, or whether a person has to prove to the government's pleasure that they meet the definition of "need" are all useless in protecting innocent people, and serve only a tyrant's goals.

We need a long, serious discussion on guns, starting with the fact that the American right to a gun is - beyond argument - absolute unless that person has demonstrated by their actions that they are a threat, and if so, it is their specific actions which bring the consequence of arrest and incarceration, not the gun.
Let me explain: The use of the term "shall not be infringed" is neither unique nor noteworthy when comparing the right to bear arms with other rights outlined in the Bill of Rights.

I don't know why the used that phrase instead of any other similar language and it really doesn't matter.
"It's not unique despite it being the only time the phrase is used!" Wouldn't that be the definition of unique? Sounds like you just don't WANT it to be significant.
Our vibrations were getting nasty. But why? I was puzzled, frustrated... Had we deteriorated to the level of dumb beasts?

ron.reagan
How long do you want to ignore this user?
There are a small amount of people that don't want gun control and a small amount that want guns totally outlawed. In this thread we only half the crazies.

We need extremely strict federal gun regulation that requires weeks of training. I'd actually prefer mandatory training by the military. But I'm also for a year of mandatory service. It makes the country stronger and also can provide easier entry to industry without everyone getting in massive debt to get an English degree.

For the people that want to own all the guns and have a basement full of ammo - you are going to have to get used to a new world where no one cares about your fantasy of another civil war. Feel free to wipe the dorritos off your shirt and storm the capitol again.

Oldbear83
How long do you want to ignore this user?
Wangchung said:

D. C. Bear said:

Oldbear83 said:

D. C. Bear said:

Oldbear83 said:

D. C. Bear said:

Oldbear83 said:

Contrario: " I personally don't view"

And that's the key phrase.

And yet again, only the Second Amendment specifically has the phrase 'shall not be infringed'.

So I ask yet again, what does that phrase mean in that context, and why is it specifically written that way?



First Amendment: "Congress shall make no law." This is a distinction without a difference.

So you think the Founders were, what , riffing when they chose the language they did?


I do not.

All those volumes of The Federalist, for example, show there was a great deal of debate about these words.

So once again, why was that specific phrase included in the Second Amendment?

They could have used "Congress shall make no law,,, abridging the right to bear arms," as they did with speech, and it wouldn't have a different meaning. If you think it would, please explain how you would draw a legal distinction between "Congress shall make no law, abridging the right to bear arms" and" the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed."
So you won't answer the question.

That's part of my point, actually.

We all know why that phrase was included.

The first battle of the Revolutionary War was to keep British (i.e. government) troops from seizing a privately-owned cannon.

The references in the Constitution to 'Letters of Marque' demonstrate that the founders not only understood that there were private individuals with their own warships, but set up rules on how to contract with such individuals to assist the US government when needed. The implication is that, yes, if you could make your own warship, your own tank, your own armed aircraft, if you could be responsible in your actions the founders had no worries about you.

There are a great many essays and quotes on the mind of our founders regarding weapons, and they are strongly consistent.

The Founders plainly refused to let the government decide what weapons the citizens could have for their use.

Every law restricting guns, ammunition by number, size or type is a slap in the face of the Founders of our country.

Right about now, some here will be hyperventilating over mass shootings, terrorism and every other phobia they have rolling around in their skulls. Some will claim my observation somehow excuses every crime committed with a weapon.

Our nation's founders had no trouble recognizing the inherent right of citizens to keep and use arms, while at the same time holding people accountable for their actions. During the Whiskey Rebellion, for example, the government under Washington arrested rioters who rose up against the government and seized the weapons they used, while notably not restricting the use and ownership of weapons by people not involved in the uprising.

We have plainly seen that gun laws do not work. Those damnable 'gun free zones' at schools, for example, only disarm innocent people who could otherwise defend themselves, and allow murderers to plan where they alone would be armed. Rules on magazine sizes, on how scary a gun can be and still be legal, or whether a person has to prove to the government's pleasure that they meet the definition of "need" are all useless in protecting innocent people, and serve only a tyrant's goals.

We need a long, serious discussion on guns, starting with the fact that the American right to a gun is - beyond argument - absolute unless that person has demonstrated by their actions that they are a threat, and if so, it is their specific actions which bring the consequence of arrest and incarceration, not the gun.
Let me explain: The use of the term "shall not be infringed" is neither unique nor noteworthy when comparing the right to bear arms with other rights outlined in the Bill of Rights.

I don't know why the used that phrase instead of any other similar language and it really doesn't matter.
"It's not unique despite it being the only time the phrase is used!" Wouldn't that be the definition of unique? Sounds like you just don't WANT it to be significant.
Yup. Everything written at that time the Constitution was being drafted, is clear that the Founders did not want government restrictions on weapons. Very much the opposite.

Some folks are afraid that this fact could be used to claim that the Founders' original intent is not appropriate today, while others have - at least to some degree - bought into the lie that guns are more dangerous than other tools and so must be "controlled' by government for our own good. Such people recognize what such thoughts mean, so instead of saying what they really think, they pretend that the phrase, despite being specifically used just for that one purpose, somehow is not important.

The plain truth is that we are all responsible for building our communities and taking matters under our own authority to address. It's culture that needs to be addressed and corrected, not whether Bob down the street can be allowed to have a gun ... or a gas stove or an internal-Combustion Engine truck, for that matter.

A gun is no more dangerous than a chainsaw, car, bug spray or anything else we may use. And a gun has proven tremendously valuable to people who would have been raped, bludgeoned and/or murdered if they had been unarmed.

The biggest threat, frankly, is that mob of career politicians who wouldn't know the right thing to do, and clearly do not care about the oath they swore to uphold the Constitution.
That which does not kill me, will try again and get nastier
Jack Bauer
How long do you want to ignore this user?
The guy in blue is an obvious plant to cause trouble and should have been arrested.



D. C. Bear
How long do you want to ignore this user?
Oldbear83 said:

"it really doesn't matter."

It damn well does.



To show that "It damn well does," please explain how you would draw a legal distinction between "Congress shall make no law… abridging the right to bear arms" and "the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed."
D. C. Bear
How long do you want to ignore this user?
Wangchung said:

D. C. Bear said:

Oldbear83 said:

D. C. Bear said:

Oldbear83 said:

D. C. Bear said:

Oldbear83 said:

Contrario: " I personally don't view"

And that's the key phrase.

And yet again, only the Second Amendment specifically has the phrase 'shall not be infringed'.

So I ask yet again, what does that phrase mean in that context, and why is it specifically written that way?



First Amendment: "Congress shall make no law." This is a distinction without a difference.

So you think the Founders were, what , riffing when they chose the language they did?


I do not.

All those volumes of The Federalist, for example, show there was a great deal of debate about these words.

So once again, why was that specific phrase included in the Second Amendment?

They could have used "Congress shall make no law,,, abridging the right to bear arms," as they did with speech, and it wouldn't have a different meaning. If you think it would, please explain how you would draw a legal distinction between "Congress shall make no law, abridging the right to bear arms" and" the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed."
So you won't answer the question.

That's part of my point, actually.

We all know why that phrase was included.

The first battle of the Revolutionary War was to keep British (i.e. government) troops from seizing a privately-owned cannon.

The references in the Constitution to 'Letters of Marque' demonstrate that the founders not only understood that there were private individuals with their own warships, but set up rules on how to contract with such individuals to assist the US government when needed. The implication is that, yes, if you could make your own warship, your own tank, your own armed aircraft, if you could be responsible in your actions the founders had no worries about you.

There are a great many essays and quotes on the mind of our founders regarding weapons, and they are strongly consistent.

The Founders plainly refused to let the government decide what weapons the citizens could have for their use.

Every law restricting guns, ammunition by number, size or type is a slap in the face of the Founders of our country.

Right about now, some here will be hyperventilating over mass shootings, terrorism and every other phobia they have rolling around in their skulls. Some will claim my observation somehow excuses every crime committed with a weapon.

Our nation's founders had no trouble recognizing the inherent right of citizens to keep and use arms, while at the same time holding people accountable for their actions. During the Whiskey Rebellion, for example, the government under Washington arrested rioters who rose up against the government and seized the weapons they used, while notably not restricting the use and ownership of weapons by people not involved in the uprising.

We have plainly seen that gun laws do not work. Those damnable 'gun free zones' at schools, for example, only disarm innocent people who could otherwise defend themselves, and allow murderers to plan where they alone would be armed. Rules on magazine sizes, on how scary a gun can be and still be legal, or whether a person has to prove to the government's pleasure that they meet the definition of "need" are all useless in protecting innocent people, and serve only a tyrant's goals.

We need a long, serious discussion on guns, starting with the fact that the American right to a gun is - beyond argument - absolute unless that person has demonstrated by their actions that they are a threat, and if so, it is their specific actions which bring the consequence of arrest and incarceration, not the gun.
Let me explain: The use of the term "shall not be infringed" is neither unique nor noteworthy when comparing the right to bear arms with other rights outlined in the Bill of Rights.

I don't know why the used that phrase instead of any other similar language and it really doesn't matter.
"It's not unique despite it being the only time the phrase is used!" Wouldn't that be the definition of unique? Sounds like you just don't WANT it to be significant.


Same question for you: please explain how you would draw a legal distinction between "Congress shall make no law… abridging the right to bear arms" and "the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed."
Oldbear83
How long do you want to ignore this user?
D. C. Bear said:

Oldbear83 said:

"it really doesn't matter."

It damn well does.



To show that "It damn well does," please explain how you would draw a legal distinction between "Congress shall make no law… abridging the right to bear arms" and "the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed."
Go read my earlier post.

I was very clear about the Second Amendment wording.

To the best of my knowledge, we are not debating the First Amendment here.
That which does not kill me, will try again and get nastier
Jacques Strap
How long do you want to ignore this user?
D. C. Bear
How long do you want to ignore this user?
Oldbear83 said:

D. C. Bear said:

Oldbear83 said:

"it really doesn't matter."

It damn well does.



To show that "It damn well does," please explain how you would draw a legal distinction between "Congress shall make no law… abridging the right to bear arms" and "the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed."
Go read my earlier post.

I was very clear about the Second Amendment wording.

To the best of my knowledge, we are not debating the First Amendment here.


You are arguing that the 2nd amendment wording is special, aren't you? I am arguing that its wording does not make it unique or special among other rights listed in the constitution so I would need to provide an example of what makes me right and you wrong. The wording of the first amendment provides that example. So, I ask again, To show that "It damn well does," please explain how you would draw a legal distinction between "Congress shall make no law… abridging the right to bear arms" and "the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed." (And I did read your earlier post).
Jacques Strap
How long do you want to ignore this user?
Jacques Strap
How long do you want to ignore this user?
D. C. Bear
How long do you want to ignore this user?
Jacques Strap said:




Hey, Joe, how about we create a world where people with mental disorders have access to actual healthcare instead of giving them the modern day equivalent of lobotomies?
90sBear
How long do you want to ignore this user?
Oldbear83 said:

D. C. Bear said:

Oldbear83 said:

D. C. Bear said:

Oldbear83 said:

Contrario: " I personally don't view"

And that's the key phrase.

And yet again, only the Second Amendment specifically has the phrase 'shall not be infringed'.

So I ask yet again, what does that phrase mean in that context, and why is it specifically written that way?



First Amendment: "Congress shall make no law." This is a distinction without a difference.

So you think the Founders were, what , riffing when they chose the language they did?


I do not.

All those volumes of The Federalist, for example, show there was a great deal of debate about these words.

So once again, why was that specific phrase included in the Second Amendment?

They could have used "Congress shall make no law,,, abridging the right to bear arms," as they did with speech, and it wouldn't have a different meaning. If you think it would, please explain how you would draw a legal distinction between "Congress shall make no law, abridging the right to bear arms" and" the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed."
So you won't answer the question.

That's part of my point, actually.

We all know why that phrase was included.

The first battle of the Revolutionary War was to keep British (i.e. government) troops from seizing a privately-owned cannon.

The references in the Constitution to 'Letters of Marque' demonstrate that the founders not only understood that there were private individuals with their own warships, but set up rules on how to contract with such individuals to assist the US government when needed. The implication is that, yes, if you could make your own warship, your own tank, your own armed aircraft, if you could be responsible in your actions the founders had no worries about you.

There are a great many essays and quotes on the mind of our founders regarding weapons, and they are strongly consistent.

The Founders plainly refused to let the government decide what weapons the citizens could have for their use.

Every law restricting guns, ammunition by number, size or type is a slap in the face of the Founders of our country.

Right about now, some here will be hyperventilating over mass shootings, terrorism and every other phobia they have rolling around in their skulls. Some will claim my observation somehow excuses every crime committed with a weapon.

Our nation's founders had no trouble recognizing the inherent right of citizens to keep and use arms, while at the same time holding people accountable for their actions. During the Whiskey Rebellion, for example, the government under Washington arrested rioters who rose up against the government and seized the weapons they used, while notably not restricting the use and ownership of weapons by people not involved in the uprising.

We have plainly seen that gun laws do not work. Those damnable 'gun free zones' at schools, for example, only disarm innocent people who could otherwise defend themselves, and allow murderers to plan where they alone would be armed. Rules on magazine sizes, on how scary a gun can be and still be legal, or whether a person has to prove to the government's pleasure that they meet the definition of "need" are all useless in protecting innocent people, and serve only a tyrant's goals.

We need a long, serious discussion on guns, starting with the fact that the American right to a gun is - beyond argument - absolute unless that person has demonstrated by their actions that they are a threat, and if so, it is their specific actions which bring the consequence of arrest and incarceration, not the gun.
So since you also were not in the room, you are also offering opinions as to their intentions and meaning. And that's fine, but just know that to be the case that you are offering an opinion just like everyone else is.

It seems you also agree with the portion of the Gun Control Act of 1968 that restricted possession of guns by felons. Note that was a due process change from the law as it had been up to that point.

Where do you stand on some of the other restrictions that were newly created - namely gun purchases by minors and possession of guns by those deemed to be mentally unfit?

I see you are pro tank, warship, and military aircraft. What is your stance on chemical weapons and plutonium and other military grade radioactive materials?

When you say a person has "demonstrated by their actions that they are a threat", does that include making multiple public statements? For example, could someone who is diagnosed bipolar or someone with extensive ties to terrorist organizations but hasn't yet been convicted of any crimes involving hurting another person make numerous public statements that they are going to blow up the White House legally purchase plastic explosives?
Wangchung
How long do you want to ignore this user?
D. C. Bear said:

Wangchung said:

D. C. Bear said:

Oldbear83 said:

D. C. Bear said:

Oldbear83 said:

D. C. Bear said:

Oldbear83 said:

Contrario: " I personally don't view"

And that's the key phrase.

And yet again, only the Second Amendment specifically has the phrase 'shall not be infringed'.

So I ask yet again, what does that phrase mean in that context, and why is it specifically written that way?



First Amendment: "Congress shall make no law." This is a distinction without a difference.

So you think the Founders were, what , riffing when they chose the language they did?


I do not.

All those volumes of The Federalist, for example, show there was a great deal of debate about these words.

So once again, why was that specific phrase included in the Second Amendment?

They could have used "Congress shall make no law,,, abridging the right to bear arms," as they did with speech, and it wouldn't have a different meaning. If you think it would, please explain how you would draw a legal distinction between "Congress shall make no law, abridging the right to bear arms" and" the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed."
So you won't answer the question.

That's part of my point, actually.

We all know why that phrase was included.

The first battle of the Revolutionary War was to keep British (i.e. government) troops from seizing a privately-owned cannon.

The references in the Constitution to 'Letters of Marque' demonstrate that the founders not only understood that there were private individuals with their own warships, but set up rules on how to contract with such individuals to assist the US government when needed. The implication is that, yes, if you could make your own warship, your own tank, your own armed aircraft, if you could be responsible in your actions the founders had no worries about you.

There are a great many essays and quotes on the mind of our founders regarding weapons, and they are strongly consistent.

The Founders plainly refused to let the government decide what weapons the citizens could have for their use.

Every law restricting guns, ammunition by number, size or type is a slap in the face of the Founders of our country.

Right about now, some here will be hyperventilating over mass shootings, terrorism and every other phobia they have rolling around in their skulls. Some will claim my observation somehow excuses every crime committed with a weapon.

Our nation's founders had no trouble recognizing the inherent right of citizens to keep and use arms, while at the same time holding people accountable for their actions. During the Whiskey Rebellion, for example, the government under Washington arrested rioters who rose up against the government and seized the weapons they used, while notably not restricting the use and ownership of weapons by people not involved in the uprising.

We have plainly seen that gun laws do not work. Those damnable 'gun free zones' at schools, for example, only disarm innocent people who could otherwise defend themselves, and allow murderers to plan where they alone would be armed. Rules on magazine sizes, on how scary a gun can be and still be legal, or whether a person has to prove to the government's pleasure that they meet the definition of "need" are all useless in protecting innocent people, and serve only a tyrant's goals.

We need a long, serious discussion on guns, starting with the fact that the American right to a gun is - beyond argument - absolute unless that person has demonstrated by their actions that they are a threat, and if so, it is their specific actions which bring the consequence of arrest and incarceration, not the gun.
Let me explain: The use of the term "shall not be infringed" is neither unique nor noteworthy when comparing the right to bear arms with other rights outlined in the Bill of Rights.

I don't know why the used that phrase instead of any other similar language and it really doesn't matter.
"It's not unique despite it being the only time the phrase is used!" Wouldn't that be the definition of unique? Sounds like you just don't WANT it to be significant.


Same question for you: please explain how you would draw a legal distinction between "Congress shall make no law… abridging the right to bear arms" and "the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed."
Can a right be infringed upon in other ways than by congress? Say, a city ordinance?
Our vibrations were getting nasty. But why? I was puzzled, frustrated... Had we deteriorated to the level of dumb beasts?

whitetrash
How long do you want to ignore this user?
Jacques Strap said:


April 17, 1865: Southern actor Day of Visibility

November 25, 1963: Ex-Marine Sharpshooter Day of Visibility (canceled; rescheduled for August 4, 1966)
Redbrickbear
How long do you want to ignore this user?
Jack Bauer
How long do you want to ignore this user?
Jacques Strap said:



"KKK faces backlash after lynching"
D. C. Bear
How long do you want to ignore this user?
Wangchung said:

D. C. Bear said:

Wangchung said:

D. C. Bear said:

Oldbear83 said:

D. C. Bear said:

Oldbear83 said:

D. C. Bear said:

Oldbear83 said:

Contrario: " I personally don't view"

And that's the key phrase.

And yet again, only the Second Amendment specifically has the phrase 'shall not be infringed'.

So I ask yet again, what does that phrase mean in that context, and why is it specifically written that way?



First Amendment: "Congress shall make no law." This is a distinction without a difference.

So you think the Founders were, what , riffing when they chose the language they did?


I do not.

All those volumes of The Federalist, for example, show there was a great deal of debate about these words.

So once again, why was that specific phrase included in the Second Amendment?

They could have used "Congress shall make no law,,, abridging the right to bear arms," as they did with speech, and it wouldn't have a different meaning. If you think it would, please explain how you would draw a legal distinction between "Congress shall make no law, abridging the right to bear arms" and" the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed."
So you won't answer the question.

That's part of my point, actually.

We all know why that phrase was included.

The first battle of the Revolutionary War was to keep British (i.e. government) troops from seizing a privately-owned cannon.

The references in the Constitution to 'Letters of Marque' demonstrate that the founders not only understood that there were private individuals with their own warships, but set up rules on how to contract with such individuals to assist the US government when needed. The implication is that, yes, if you could make your own warship, your own tank, your own armed aircraft, if you could be responsible in your actions the founders had no worries about you.

There are a great many essays and quotes on the mind of our founders regarding weapons, and they are strongly consistent.

The Founders plainly refused to let the government decide what weapons the citizens could have for their use.

Every law restricting guns, ammunition by number, size or type is a slap in the face of the Founders of our country.

Right about now, some here will be hyperventilating over mass shootings, terrorism and every other phobia they have rolling around in their skulls. Some will claim my observation somehow excuses every crime committed with a weapon.

Our nation's founders had no trouble recognizing the inherent right of citizens to keep and use arms, while at the same time holding people accountable for their actions. During the Whiskey Rebellion, for example, the government under Washington arrested rioters who rose up against the government and seized the weapons they used, while notably not restricting the use and ownership of weapons by people not involved in the uprising.

We have plainly seen that gun laws do not work. Those damnable 'gun free zones' at schools, for example, only disarm innocent people who could otherwise defend themselves, and allow murderers to plan where they alone would be armed. Rules on magazine sizes, on how scary a gun can be and still be legal, or whether a person has to prove to the government's pleasure that they meet the definition of "need" are all useless in protecting innocent people, and serve only a tyrant's goals.

We need a long, serious discussion on guns, starting with the fact that the American right to a gun is - beyond argument - absolute unless that person has demonstrated by their actions that they are a threat, and if so, it is their specific actions which bring the consequence of arrest and incarceration, not the gun.
Let me explain: The use of the term "shall not be infringed" is neither unique nor noteworthy when comparing the right to bear arms with other rights outlined in the Bill of Rights.

I don't know why the used that phrase instead of any other similar language and it really doesn't matter.
"It's not unique despite it being the only time the phrase is used!" Wouldn't that be the definition of unique? Sounds like you just don't WANT it to be significant.


Same question for you: please explain how you would draw a legal distinction between "Congress shall make no law… abridging the right to bear arms" and "the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed."
Can a right be infringed upon in other ways than by congress? Say, a city ordinance?


In theory, a right could be infringed upon by any entity with any level of legal authority. However, the 2nd amendment had to be incorporated through the 14th amendment for it to apply to any of those entities other than the federal government. Before it was explicitly incorporated via the 14th amendment, it was explicitly the law that it did not apply to any legal entity other than Congress.

"The second amendment declares that it shall not be infringed, but this, as has been seen, means no more than that it shall not be infringed by congress." (United States v. Cruikshank).

Later, "Unless considerations of stare decisis counsel otherwise, a provision of the Bill of Rights that protects a right that is fundamental from an American perspective applies equally to the Federal Government and the States. We therefore hold that the Due Process Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment incorporates the Second Amendment right recognized in Heller." (McDonald v. City of Chicago)

Quite obviously, the language of the 2nd amendment did not grant the right to bear arms any special status as a right when compared with other rights laid out in the constitution which, similarly, had to be incorporated via the 14th amendment to apply to entities other than the federal government.
Jacques Strap
How long do you want to ignore this user?

Wangchung
How long do you want to ignore this user?
D. C. Bear said:

Wangchung said:

D. C. Bear said:

Wangchung said:

D. C. Bear said:

Oldbear83 said:

D. C. Bear said:

Oldbear83 said:

D. C. Bear said:

Oldbear83 said:

Contrario: " I personally don't view"

And that's the key phrase.

And yet again, only the Second Amendment specifically has the phrase 'shall not be infringed'.

So I ask yet again, what does that phrase mean in that context, and why is it specifically written that way?



First Amendment: "Congress shall make no law." This is a distinction without a difference.

So you think the Founders were, what , riffing when they chose the language they did?


I do not.

All those volumes of The Federalist, for example, show there was a great deal of debate about these words.

So once again, why was that specific phrase included in the Second Amendment?

They could have used "Congress shall make no law,,, abridging the right to bear arms," as they did with speech, and it wouldn't have a different meaning. If you think it would, please explain how you would draw a legal distinction between "Congress shall make no law, abridging the right to bear arms" and" the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed."
So you won't answer the question.

That's part of my point, actually.

We all know why that phrase was included.

The first battle of the Revolutionary War was to keep British (i.e. government) troops from seizing a privately-owned cannon.

The references in the Constitution to 'Letters of Marque' demonstrate that the founders not only understood that there were private individuals with their own warships, but set up rules on how to contract with such individuals to assist the US government when needed. The implication is that, yes, if you could make your own warship, your own tank, your own armed aircraft, if you could be responsible in your actions the founders had no worries about you.

There are a great many essays and quotes on the mind of our founders regarding weapons, and they are strongly consistent.

The Founders plainly refused to let the government decide what weapons the citizens could have for their use.

Every law restricting guns, ammunition by number, size or type is a slap in the face of the Founders of our country.

Right about now, some here will be hyperventilating over mass shootings, terrorism and every other phobia they have rolling around in their skulls. Some will claim my observation somehow excuses every crime committed with a weapon.

Our nation's founders had no trouble recognizing the inherent right of citizens to keep and use arms, while at the same time holding people accountable for their actions. During the Whiskey Rebellion, for example, the government under Washington arrested rioters who rose up against the government and seized the weapons they used, while notably not restricting the use and ownership of weapons by people not involved in the uprising.

We have plainly seen that gun laws do not work. Those damnable 'gun free zones' at schools, for example, only disarm innocent people who could otherwise defend themselves, and allow murderers to plan where they alone would be armed. Rules on magazine sizes, on how scary a gun can be and still be legal, or whether a person has to prove to the government's pleasure that they meet the definition of "need" are all useless in protecting innocent people, and serve only a tyrant's goals.

We need a long, serious discussion on guns, starting with the fact that the American right to a gun is - beyond argument - absolute unless that person has demonstrated by their actions that they are a threat, and if so, it is their specific actions which bring the consequence of arrest and incarceration, not the gun.
Let me explain: The use of the term "shall not be infringed" is neither unique nor noteworthy when comparing the right to bear arms with other rights outlined in the Bill of Rights.

I don't know why the used that phrase instead of any other similar language and it really doesn't matter.
"It's not unique despite it being the only time the phrase is used!" Wouldn't that be the definition of unique? Sounds like you just don't WANT it to be significant.


Same question for you: please explain how you would draw a legal distinction between "Congress shall make no law… abridging the right to bear arms" and "the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed."
Can a right be infringed upon in other ways than by congress? Say, a city ordinance?


In theory, a right could be infringed upon by any entity with any level of legal authority. However, the 2nd amendment had to be incorporated through the 14th amendment for it to apply to any of those entities other than the federal government. Before it was explicitly incorporated via the 14th amendment, it was explicitly the law that it did not apply to any legal entity other than Congress.

"The second amendment declares that it shall not be infringed, but this, as has been seen, means no more than that it shall not be infringed by congress." (United States v. Cruikshank).

Later, "Unless considerations of stare decisis counsel otherwise, a provision of the Bill of Rights that protects a right that is fundamental from an American perspective applies equally to the Federal Government and the States. We therefore hold that the Due Process Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment incorporates the Second Amendment right recognized in Heller." (McDonald v. City of Chicago)

Quite obviously, the language of the 2nd amendment did not grant the right to bear arms any special status as a right when compared with other rights laid out in the constitution which, similarly, had to be incorporated via the 14th amendment to apply to entities other than the federal government.
All developments that had to happen AFTER the writing of the second amendment and subsequent challenges to the authority of "shall not be infringed." It's still a unique statement of authority.
Our vibrations were getting nasty. But why? I was puzzled, frustrated... Had we deteriorated to the level of dumb beasts?

Jack Bauer
How long do you want to ignore this user?
Jacques Strap said:




Feels like they are just driving over the dead bodies in Nashville to get to their agenda...
Redbrickbear
How long do you want to ignore this user?



Osodecentx
How long do you want to ignore this user?
Wangchung said:

D. C. Bear said:

Wangchung said:

D. C. Bear said:

Oldbear83 said:

D. C. Bear said:

Oldbear83 said:

D. C. Bear said:

Oldbear83 said:

Contrario: " I personally don't view"

And that's the key phrase.

And yet again, only the Second Amendment specifically has the phrase 'shall not be infringed'.

So I ask yet again, what does that phrase mean in that context, and why is it specifically written that way?



First Amendment: "Congress shall make no law." This is a distinction without a difference.

So you think the Founders were, what , riffing when they chose the language they did?


I do not.

All those volumes of The Federalist, for example, show there was a great deal of debate about these words.

So once again, why was that specific phrase included in the Second Amendment?

They could have used "Congress shall make no law,,, abridging the right to bear arms," as they did with speech, and it wouldn't have a different meaning. If you think it would, please explain how you would draw a legal distinction between "Congress shall make no law, abridging the right to bear arms" and" the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed."
So you won't answer the question.

That's part of my point, actually.

We all know why that phrase was included.

The first battle of the Revolutionary War was to keep British (i.e. government) troops from seizing a privately-owned cannon.

The references in the Constitution to 'Letters of Marque' demonstrate that the founders not only understood that there were private individuals with their own warships, but set up rules on how to contract with such individuals to assist the US government when needed. The implication is that, yes, if you could make your own warship, your own tank, your own armed aircraft, if you could be responsible in your actions the founders had no worries about you.

There are a great many essays and quotes on the mind of our founders regarding weapons, and they are strongly consistent.

The Founders plainly refused to let the government decide what weapons the citizens could have for their use.

Every law restricting guns, ammunition by number, size or type is a slap in the face of the Founders of our country.

Right about now, some here will be hyperventilating over mass shootings, terrorism and every other phobia they have rolling around in their skulls. Some will claim my observation somehow excuses every crime committed with a weapon.

Our nation's founders had no trouble recognizing the inherent right of citizens to keep and use arms, while at the same time holding people accountable for their actions. During the Whiskey Rebellion, for example, the government under Washington arrested rioters who rose up against the government and seized the weapons they used, while notably not restricting the use and ownership of weapons by people not involved in the uprising.

We have plainly seen that gun laws do not work. Those damnable 'gun free zones' at schools, for example, only disarm innocent people who could otherwise defend themselves, and allow murderers to plan where they alone would be armed. Rules on magazine sizes, on how scary a gun can be and still be legal, or whether a person has to prove to the government's pleasure that they meet the definition of "need" are all useless in protecting innocent people, and serve only a tyrant's goals.

We need a long, serious discussion on guns, starting with the fact that the American right to a gun is - beyond argument - absolute unless that person has demonstrated by their actions that they are a threat, and if so, it is their specific actions which bring the consequence of arrest and incarceration, not the gun.
Let me explain: The use of the term "shall not be infringed" is neither unique nor noteworthy when comparing the right to bear arms with other rights outlined in the Bill of Rights.

I don't know why the used that phrase instead of any other similar language and it really doesn't matter.
"It's not unique despite it being the only time the phrase is used!" Wouldn't that be the definition of unique? Sounds like you just don't WANT it to be significant.


Same question for you: please explain how you would draw a legal distinction between "Congress shall make no law… abridging the right to bear arms" and "the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed."
Can a right be infringed upon in other ways than by congress? Say, a city ordinance?
Sure.
Right to free speech is subject to time place and manner restrictions.
Property rights can be infringed by zoning and condemnation proceedings.
Second Amendment is subject to local governments' requirements
Osodecentx
How long do you want to ignore this user?
Pastor walks back claim Audrey Hale was undergoing counseling with man whose daughter she killed


A former pastor at the school where Nashville shooter Audrey Hale killed six people on Monday claimed she was being couseled by Chad Scruggs, the father of one of the victims, only to later say he had been mistaken.
Jim Bachmann said in an interview with Inside Edition that Hale appeared to be searching for Scruggs, the current pastor at the Covenant School, in surveillance footage the police released.
However, when approached by The Post on Wednesday, Bachmann said he had since realized he was wrong.
"I understand that they were not counseling, actually," Bachmann said.
"I think there's just some confusion because she had, years earlier.
"But these last two days, I've had several messages from an assortment of people that not only was there no counseling between those two, that he didn't even know her," Bachmann said.
Bachmann confirmed that representatives from Covenant, a private Christian school, had been in touch to tell him him he was incorrect, and added that he had been influenced by social media and the way he had perceived surveillance video of Hale released by the police.
He added that since making the claims, he had been contacted by various people who worked at the school who had assured him that Scruggs was not counseling Hale.
One of Hale's victims was 9-year-old Hallie Scruggs, the current pastor's daughter.
https://nypost.com/2023/03/30/audrey-hale-counseled-by-pastor-whose-daughter-she-killed/?utm_campaign=SocialFlow&utm_medium=SocialFlow&utm_source=NYPTwitter

Oldbear83
How long do you want to ignore this user?
DC "You are arguing that the 2nd amendment wording is special, aren't you? I am arguing that its wording does not make it unique or special among other rights listed in the constitution"

Then explain why that phrase is there.

Come on, this is the Constitutional Convention that wrote this, not a high school girl sending a text to their friends about gossip.

Everything was carefully planned out, but you want to ignore that phrase.

It is there for a reason. If you disagree with my opinion, explain why it's there, because pretending it doesn't mean anything is piss poor logic, sir.
That which does not kill me, will try again and get nastier
Oldbear83
How long do you want to ignore this user?
Go change your tampon before reading this one, pal.

Consider this.

When Ted Kaczynski went cray cray, he started building bombs. Obviously, the Unabomber broke many laws when he mailed out those explosives, but right up to the time he left his cabin to send them, he had broken no laws of the time, even up to building bombs.

Now many of the parts used to make those bombs can still be obtained easily and legally Which makes more sense, then:

1) outlaw anything that might conceivably be made into a bomb, even if well over 98% of uses for those things are good and fine, or

2) Focus on the behavior and profile individuals who would do things like build bombs?

My point is, you are still obsessing on guns as if they - by existing - are terrible things which must be controlled when they cannot be banned. We already know that doesn't work, by the way.

That which does not kill me, will try again and get nastier
90sBear
How long do you want to ignore this user?
Oldbear83 said:

Go change your tampon before reading this one, pal.

Consider this.

When Ted Kaczynski went cray cray, he started building bombs. Obviously, the Unabomber broke many laws when he mailed out those explosives, but right up to the time he left his cabin to send them, he had broken no laws of the time, even up to building bombs.

Now many of the parts used to make those bombs can still be obtained easily and legally Which makes more sense, then:

1) outlaw anything that might conceivably be made into a bomb, even if well over 98% of uses for those things are good and fine, or

2) Focus on the behavior and profile individuals who would do things like build bombs?

My point is, you are still obsessing on guns as if they - by existing - are terrible things which must be controlled when they cannot be banned. We already know that doesn't work, by the way.


You didn't answer many of my questions. For someone who says they want to have a "long serious discussion" you sure avoid answering a lot of people's questions.

Where do you stand on some of the other restrictions that were newly created by the gun control act of 1968 - namely gun purchases by minors and possession of guns by those deemed to be mentally unfit?

I see you are pro tank, warship, and military aircraft. What is your stance on chemical weapons and plutonium and other military grade radioactive materials?

When you say a person has "demonstrated by their actions that they are a threat", does that include making multiple public statements? For example, could someone who is diagnosed bipolar or someone with extensive ties to terrorist organizations but hasn't yet been convicted of any crimes involving hurting another person make numerous public statements that they are going to blow up the White House legally purchase plastic explosives?

You offered up the idea of "focusing on the profile" but earlier stated "demonstrated by their actions that they are a threat". Those aren't necessarily the same thing.

Please answer the questions and clarify.
D. C. Bear
How long do you want to ignore this user?
Oldbear83 said:

Go change your tampon before reading this one, pal.

Consider this.

When Ted Kaczynski went cray cray, he started building bombs. Obviously, the Unabomber broke many laws when he mailed out those explosives, but right up to the time he left his cabin to send them, he had broken no laws of the time, even up to building bombs.

Now many of the parts used to make those bombs can still be obtained easily and legally Which makes more sense, then:

1) outlaw anything that might conceivably be made into a bomb, even if well over 98% of uses for those things are good and fine, or

2) Focus on the behavior and profile individuals who would do things like build bombs?

My point is, you are still obsessing on guns as if they - by existing - are terrible things which must be controlled when they cannot be banned. We already know that doesn't work, by the way.




What in my post supports your contention that I was ever "obsessing about guns," never mind that I am "still" doing that? Be specific, and quit acting like an *******.
Wrecks Quan Dough
How long do you want to ignore this user?
Jack Bauer said:

The guy in blue is an obvious plant to cause trouble and should have been arrested.




It is past time to call in the National Guard on Soros' narcissistic children.
 
×
subscribe Verify your student status
See Subscription Benefits
Trial only available to users who have never subscribed or participated in a previous trial.