Coke Bear said:
BusyTarpDuster2017 said:
Did the vast majority of church fathers, theologians, scholars, historians, and even major Christians reference texts from the time of Jerome (c 350) up until the 16th century consider the deuterocanon as part of the canon? NO
Ergo, they were added.
This is demonstrably false. As we have discussed, a wide range of beliefs were present in the early Church about the Deuterocanon. It was certainly NOT a majority.
By the end of Jerome's life, he neither categorically rejected the Deuterocanon. He showed deference to the judgement of the Church. He states, "What sin have I committed in following the judgment of the churches?"
He wound up strenuously defending their status as inspired Scripture. He never said that the Deuterocanon was unscriptural he simply said that Jews he knew did not regard them as canonical. This distinction matters enormously. We don't get our canon discernment from the Jews, who also reject Jesus and ALL of the NT.
It was the Church that discerned what is scripture.
Finally, the Codex Sinaiticus (330360 AD) and Codex Vaticanus (300325 AD) contained the Deuterocanon.
The Gutenberg Bible (1455 AD) and the Wycliffe Bible (1380 AD) contained the Deuterocanon.
How could the deuterocanonical books have been added in the 16th century?
- I literally
proved it was the majority in a previous thread. You are merely recycling a defeated argument. Do I need to show that evidence again? Do we need to see your
lack of evidence for your claim again? Say the word, and we can remind the folks.
- Your Jerome history is completely made up. He obeyed the Church and went ahead and translated the deuterocanon into Latin, but he continued to believe that the deuterocanon was not part of canon Scripture. That's why he said so in his Latin Vulgate Bible. You have NO evidence that Jerome "strenuously defended their status as inspired Scripture". I guess when you have such a weak position, you have to make up the evidence, in hopes that your Catholic brethren won't notice.
- The Roman Catholic Church did NOT discern what was Scripture. My response to FLBear's post above proves this thoroughly. Melito's canon, Bryennios' list, Origen's list, none of which contained the books of the deuterocanon (Origen included Maccabees, but none of the others),
pre-existed the Codex Sinaiticus and Codex Vaticanus by more than a century, and pre-existed the 14th and 15th century bibles you cited by over a millenium. The fact is that the vast majority of the Bible was already discerned by the church before the first century was over, LONG before any RCC council ever convened. So NO, the "Church" did not "discern the canon". You keep repeating a claim that's been defeated many, many times in this forum. I'm beginning to detect a pattern.
- I didn't say the deuterocanonical books were added "in the 16th century". This is yet another example of your sloppy argumentation (or maybe it's just dishonesty). I just said they were "added". The BETTER question is, rather, given all the factual historical evidence I presented, how can YOU claim that the deuterocanon was REMOVED in the 16th century?? I think to rational, intelligent people, it's clear that you can't "remove" something that wasn't initially there in the beginning.
You really need to abandon your whole line of argumentation here. The facts just aren't on your side. If you're just going to keep repeating them over and over like you are, you're just gonna make yourself look more and more intellectually dishonest and brainwashed.