Imagine willfully not trying tohonor Mary as much as our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ

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BusyTarpDuster2017
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Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

It's not a special name for her answer. It is her answer. Not "it shall be," but "let it be."

It is her answer as Roman Catholics call it. No surprise they want to frame it as an obedience.

"Let it be" as an answer to "Will you?" is a personal choice.
"Let it be" as an answer to "You WILL" is submission to God's choice.

In other words, obedience.

No, in other words, agreement with.

Even better. Call it what you want, there's no evidence of anything but consent on Mary's part.

Simply asserting it doesn't make it any more true that it already wasn't.

There was no more consent involved in the "you will" to Mary as there was in the "you will be mute" to Zechariah when the same angel announced to him the birth of John the Baptist.

I suspect Zechariah would disagree with you.

^^^ This is an example of how a Roman Catholic has to dig his hole deeper into absurdity in order to continue defending a defeated viewpoint. Here, he has to argue that Zechariah could have refused to be mute when the angel declared it as his punishment from God, and thus thwart God's declaration. He has to, in order to stay consistent with his view about Mary.

The better and wiser thing for you Roman Catholics view is just to concede the point. You'll end up looking a whole lot more sane.
Sam Lowry
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BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

It's not a special name for her answer. It is her answer. Not "it shall be," but "let it be."

It is her answer as Roman Catholics call it. No surprise they want to frame it as an obedience.

"Let it be" as an answer to "Will you?" is a personal choice.
"Let it be" as an answer to "You WILL" is submission to God's choice.

In other words, obedience.

No, in other words, agreement with.

Even better. Call it what you want, there's no evidence of anything but consent on Mary's part.

Simply asserting it doesn't make it any more true that it already wasn't.

There was no more consent involved in the "you will" to Mary as there was in the "you will be mute" to Zechariah when the same angel announced to him the birth of John the Baptist.

I suspect Zechariah would disagree with you.

^^^ This is an example of how a Roman Catholic has to dig his hole deeper into absurdity in order to continue defending a defeated viewpoint. Here, he has to argue that Zechariah could have refused to be mute when the angel declared it as his punishment from God, and thus thwart God's declaration. He has to, in order to stay consistent with his view about Mary.

Back up and read.
BusyTarpDuster2017
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Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

It's not a special name for her answer. It is her answer. Not "it shall be," but "let it be."

It is her answer as Roman Catholics call it. No surprise they want to frame it as an obedience.

"Let it be" as an answer to "Will you?" is a personal choice.
"Let it be" as an answer to "You WILL" is submission to God's choice.

In other words, obedience.

No, in other words, agreement with.

Even better. Call it what you want, there's no evidence of anything but consent on Mary's part.

Simply asserting it doesn't make it any more true that it already wasn't.

There was no more consent involved in the "you will" to Mary as there was in the "you will be mute" to Zechariah when the same angel announced to him the birth of John the Baptist.

I suspect Zechariah would disagree with you.

^^^ This is an example of how a Roman Catholic has to dig his hole deeper into absurdity in order to continue defending a defeated viewpoint. Here, he has to argue that Zechariah could have refused to be mute when the angel declared it as his punishment from God, and thus thwart God's declaration. He has to, in order to stay consistent with his view about Mary.

Back up and read.

If you're saying Zechariah would not agree that his "You will" is the same as Mary's "You will", then what on earth do you base that on? Regardless, it wouldn't even be relevant, as what Zechariah believes (as if we're even in position to know this) doesn't even change the argument at all. The "you will" is the same kind of declaration. To suggest one implies consent while the other doesn't is a completely baseless form of reasoning.
BusyTarpDuster2017
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Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

It's not a special name for her answer. It is her answer. Not "it shall be," but "let it be."

It is her answer as Roman Catholics call it. No surprise they want to frame it as an obedience.

"Let it be" as an answer to "Will you?" is a personal choice.
"Let it be" as an answer to "You WILL" is submission to God's choice.

In other words, obedience.

No, in other words, agreement with.

Even better. Call it what you want, there's no evidence of anything but consent on Mary's part.

Simply asserting it doesn't make it any more true that it already wasn't.

There was no more consent involved in the "you will" to Mary as there was in the "you will be mute" to Zechariah when the same angel announced to him the birth of John the Baptist.

I suspect Zechariah would disagree with you.

^^^ This is an example of how a Roman Catholic has to dig his hole deeper into absurdity in order to continue defending a defeated viewpoint. Here, he has to argue that Zechariah could have refused to be mute when the angel declared it as his punishment from God, and thus thwart God's declaration. He has to, in order to stay consistent with his view about Mary.

Back up and read.

I suggest that you stop being vague and ambiguous in your responses, if you want to communicate better.
Sam Lowry
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BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

It's not a special name for her answer. It is her answer. Not "it shall be," but "let it be."

It is her answer as Roman Catholics call it. No surprise they want to frame it as an obedience.

"Let it be" as an answer to "Will you?" is a personal choice.
"Let it be" as an answer to "You WILL" is submission to God's choice.

In other words, obedience.

No, in other words, agreement with.

Even better. Call it what you want, there's no evidence of anything but consent on Mary's part.

Simply asserting it doesn't make it any more true that it already wasn't.

There was no more consent involved in the "you will" to Mary as there was in the "you will be mute" to Zechariah when the same angel announced to him the birth of John the Baptist.

I suspect Zechariah would disagree with you.

^^^ This is an example of how a Roman Catholic has to dig his hole deeper into absurdity in order to continue defending a defeated viewpoint. Here, he has to argue that Zechariah could have refused to be mute when the angel declared it as his punishment from God, and thus thwart God's declaration. He has to, in order to stay consistent with his view about Mary.

Back up and read.

If you're saying Zechariah would not agree that his "You will" is the same as Mary's "You will", then what on earth do you base that on? Regardless, it wouldn't even be relevant, as what Zechariah believes (as if we're even in position to know this) doesn't even change the argument at all. The "you will" is the same kind of declaration. To suggest one implies consent while the other doesn't is a completely baseless form of reasoning.

The angel didn't wait for Zechariah to say anything. He was struck dumb for his unbelief.
Sam Lowry
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BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

It's not a special name for her answer. It is her answer. Not "it shall be," but "let it be."

It is her answer as Roman Catholics call it. No surprise they want to frame it as an obedience.

"Let it be" as an answer to "Will you?" is a personal choice.
"Let it be" as an answer to "You WILL" is submission to God's choice.

In other words, obedience.

No, in other words, agreement with.

Even better. Call it what you want, there's no evidence of anything but consent on Mary's part.

Simply asserting it doesn't make it any more true that it already wasn't.

There was no more consent involved in the "you will" to Mary as there was in the "you will be mute" to Zechariah when the same angel announced to him the birth of John the Baptist.

I suspect Zechariah would disagree with you.

^^^ This is an example of how a Roman Catholic has to dig his hole deeper into absurdity in order to continue defending a defeated viewpoint. Here, he has to argue that Zechariah could have refused to be mute when the angel declared it as his punishment from God, and thus thwart God's declaration. He has to, in order to stay consistent with his view about Mary.

Back up and read.

I suggest that you stop being vague and ambiguous in your responses, if you want to communicate better.

I'm obviously not arguing that Zechariah could have refused to be mute. Quite the opposite.
boognish_bear
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...
BusyTarpDuster2017
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Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

It's not a special name for her answer. It is her answer. Not "it shall be," but "let it be."

It is her answer as Roman Catholics call it. No surprise they want to frame it as an obedience.

"Let it be" as an answer to "Will you?" is a personal choice.
"Let it be" as an answer to "You WILL" is submission to God's choice.

In other words, obedience.

No, in other words, agreement with.

Even better. Call it what you want, there's no evidence of anything but consent on Mary's part.

Simply asserting it doesn't make it any more true that it already wasn't.

There was no more consent involved in the "you will" to Mary as there was in the "you will be mute" to Zechariah when the same angel announced to him the birth of John the Baptist.

I suspect Zechariah would disagree with you.

^^^ This is an example of how a Roman Catholic has to dig his hole deeper into absurdity in order to continue defending a defeated viewpoint. Here, he has to argue that Zechariah could have refused to be mute when the angel declared it as his punishment from God, and thus thwart God's declaration. He has to, in order to stay consistent with his view about Mary.

Back up and read.

If you're saying Zechariah would not agree that his "You will" is the same as Mary's "You will", then what on earth do you base that on? Regardless, it wouldn't even be relevant, as what Zechariah believes (as if we're even in position to know this) doesn't even change the argument at all. The "you will" is the same kind of declaration. To suggest one implies consent while the other doesn't is a completely baseless form of reasoning.

The angel didn't wait for Zechariah to say anything. He was struck dumb for his unbelief.

Which has what to do with the fact that the angel's "you will" did not involve his consent, in the same way that it didn't for Mary?

Nothing. Any attempt to turn either "you will" into a declaration that is contingent upon the person's consent or obedience is sheer dishonesty or ignorance.
Mothra
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Realitybites said:

Mothra said:

For example, while communion is treated with seriousness in the New Testament, the responsibility given is for self-examination before God, not for receiving approval from a priest beforehand. Similarly, confession is certainly biblical, but Scripture teaches both confessing sins to one another and going directly to God for forgiveness; it never explicitly requires confession to a priest as a condition for receiving grace or participating in communion.


Orthodox confession is not a process in which you confess your sins to a priest who then personally grants you absolution from a treasury of merit the church possesses in exchange for your performance of certain works. It is a process in which the priest serves as an accountability partner as you confess your sins to God. During it, you and the priest stand before the altar together as you make your confession. God grants the absolution. The priest's role is as guide to the penitent in executing Jesus' commandment "Go and sin no more." Of course, Orthodox Christians are also encouraged to confess their sins directly to God in the absence of a priest or church if one is not available.

It is the difference between a gatekeeper and a patient going to his doctor, telling him symptoms and being told the diagnosis and treatment.

Given what 1st Corinthians says about communion and how it can cause sickness and death in those who receive it unworthily, treating it as a prescription medication is a good thing. In fact the church has always done this - the early church dismissed the unbaptized from the service before communion and before the 20th century most churches that taught some form of the real presence had closed communions for this reason.

Quote:

Likewise, while fasting and disciplined prayer are clearly encouraged in Scripture, the Bible does not mandate fixed, universal schedules or detailed systems for all believers. In fact, it warns against turning external rules about food or practices into binding spiritual requirements, noting that such regulations can appear wise but don't necessarily produce true spiritual transformation. See Colossians 2:20-23...My concern is that these practices can become treated as necessary structures through which grace is mediated or dispensed.


Let's go back to the very original fast commanded by God.

"And the Lord God commanded the man, saying, "Of every tree of the garden you may freely eat; but of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil you shall not eat, for in the day that you eat of it you shall surely die." (Genesis 2:16)

The proximate cause of the fall of man was our refusal to fast: "So when the woman saw that the tree was good for food, that it was [a]pleasant to the eyes, and a tree desirable to make one wise, she took of its fruit and ate. She also gave to her husband with her, and he ate." (Genesis 3:6)

That was a binding regulation was it not? As a self-professed Calvinist, I presume that you adhere to covenant theology and not dispensationalism (if I'm wrong about that, I'd really recommend reading this book by Dr. John Gerstner, forwarded by R.C. Sproul.). So you can't simply dismiss this as irrelevant to our time.

Fasting is still relevant to us today. In fact, it is part of all pagan religions - Rabbinic Judaism, Islam, Hinduism, Zoroastrianism, etc. Sort of an ancestral memory of that original trauma passed down over time as the original monotheism devolved, I think.

It is something all Christians are called to engage in (Matthew 9:15). While it is not a practice that can justify us in the eyes of God, it is a practice through which God's grace is mediated and dispensed. Jesus did not need to be baptized, and yet he was. Jesus did not need to fast, and yet he did (40 days, the length of our Lenten fast today). Jesus carried His cross, we are to carry ours.

Which then brings up the question of how one should fast. Should I make this up as I go along? Should I fast from the same things on a set schedule? What should I fast from? Should I pick that myself? Can I substitute abstinance from other things (for example, watching football or time on Sicem365.com) for food? No. Our Creator knew of The Brain Gut Connection. After all, He made it. Fasting from food is fundamental to "go and sin no more."

The answer of the Orthodox church is from the Didache, an early Christian writing that was the Bible's contemporary and gave many instructions on living out the Christian faith: "Don't let your fasting coincide with those of the hypocrites.They fast on the 2nd [Monday] and 5th [Thursday] days of the week. So, you should fast on the 4th day [Wednesday] and the preparation [Friday] day of the week." That is the pattern of fasting we Orthodox still follow today, 1800 years later.

"Thus says the LORD: "Stand by the roads, and look, and ask for the ancient paths, where the good way is; and walk in it, and find rest for your souls." (Jeremiah 6:16).

Quote:


The heart of the issue is not whether these practices can be beneficial, but whether they should be considered binding or essential in the way described. Some of this seems to substitute a set of rules for a personal relationship with Christ.



The problem with "the personal relationship with Christ" is that this phrase itself is unbiblical. I understand where it came from - to illustrate that every individual must come to faith individually instead being free riders on organizational, cultural, or familial coat tails. But what it has become strikes at the very heart of how the Christian faith is lived out: communally in the church. "The norm of the Christian faith is not isolated believers, little islands of spirituality, but a continent of Christians banded together by the Spirit. We are baptized into one body, the body of Jesus. Our so-called personal relationship with Jesus is indeed with his person - his body of which all other believers are a part. Fingers don't have a relationship with Jesus apart from the hand, the hand from the arm, the arm from the shoulder, and so on." The phrase itself has become destructive to the church at large.

1) Confession: Thanks for the insight into Orthodox confession. While I don't think the way you guys do it is necessarily wrong, it is extra-scriptural in nature. Scripture consistently presents confession as something directed primarily and sufficiently to God, without requiring a clerical intermediary. For example, 1 John 1:9 teaches that "if we confess our sins, He is faithful and just to forgive us," making no mention of a priestly witness or sacramental setting.

Likewise, Psalm 32:5 shows David confessing directly to God and receiving forgiveness without any human intermediary. While James 5:16 does encourage believers to "confess your sins to one another," this is mutual and general (not restricted to ordained clergy) rather than a formalized rite. The New Testament consistently grounds forgiveness in repentance and faith, not in sacramental confession to a priest. Additionally, Hebrews emphasizes that Christ is the sole mediator between God and humanity (Hebrews 4:14-16), granting believers direct access to God's throne of grace without additional human mediators. From this perspective, framing the priest as an essential participant( even as a "spiritual physician") risks obscuring the sufficiency of Christ's priesthood and the believer's relationship with God.

While I agree that seeking counsel or accountability from mature Christians is biblically encouraged, the structured, priest-centered model of confession found in Orthodoxy is better understood as a later development rather than a practice clearly established or required by Scripture itself.

2) Communion. While 1 Corinthians 11 does warn that unworthy participation can bring judgment, Paul's solution is self-examination and repentance, not treating communion like a controlled "prescription" administered by the church. The focus is on the believer's faith and discernment, not institutional restriction. Your medical analogy risks sort of implies that the sacrament works mechanically or is inherently dangerous unless tightly controlled. Scripture itself places the primary responsibility on individuals before God.

3) Fasting: This is another instance in which the Orthodox Church holds a position that is extra-scriptural in nature.

First, the claim that the command in Genesis 2 is fundamentally a "fast" demonstrates a fundamental misunderstanding of what took place in the garden. The prohibition of the tree is a test of obedience and covenant loyalty, not an instituted fasting practice. The fall came from rebellion against God's command, not a failure to engage in fasting as a spiritual discipline. Calling it "the original fast" stretches the category beyond its biblical meaning. Reformed theology distinguishes between moral law (binding) and positive commands tied to specific covenants or situations. The tree prohibition belongs to the latter category, so it does not establish fasting as an ongoing obligation.

As for your argument that fasting appears in many religions as an "ancestral memory," this simply is not biblically grounded. Scripture never explains fasting that way; instead, it presents fasting as a voluntary act of humility, repentance, or seeking God (Matthew 6:16-18). As for, Matthew 9:15, it does affirm that Christians will fast, but it does not mandate when, how often, or according to a fixed schedule. In the New Testament, fasting is consistently non-prescribed and flexible (see Acts 13:23; 14:23).

Scripture does not teach that fasting is a mechanism through which grace is "dispensed." God's grace is consistently tied to faith and His promises, while fasting is portrayed as an expression of humility, repentance, or dependence. Even in Isaiah 58, God rebukes improper fasting and makes clear that what He desires is righteousness and justice, not merely abstaining from food.

Finally, appealing to the Didache does not establish binding authority, because Scripture itself is the standard for doctrine and practice. The New Testament never commands Christians to adopt a fixed weekly fasting schedule like Wednesday and Friday, nor does it elevate early post-apostolic traditions to the level of divine instruction.

4) The Church. As for the communal nature of the Christian faith, we agree that we are called to be a part of the body of Christ - His Church. However, the concept of a direct relationship between the believer and Chris is clearly stated in scripture: believers are described as personally knowing Christ (John 17:3; Philippians 3:8-10), being united to Him individually (Galatians 2:20), and responding to Him in faith on a personal level (Revelation 3:20). Scripture unmistakably teaches that this personal relationship brings each believer into a shared life within the body of Christ (1 Corinthians 12:12-13), where faith is lived out in fellowship and mutual dependence (Hebrews 10:24-25).

The error is not in the idea of a personal relationship itself, but in isolating it from the church. Properly understood, the Bible presents both realities: a genuine, individual relationship with Christ that necessarily binds believers to one another in His body, rather than leaving them as "islands of spirituality."
Mothra
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BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Realitybites said:

Mothra said:

For example, while communion is treated with seriousness in the New Testament, the responsibility given is for self-examination before God, not for receiving approval from a priest beforehand. Similarly, confession is certainly biblical, but Scripture teaches both confessing sins to one another and going directly to God for forgiveness; it never explicitly requires confession to a priest as a condition for receiving grace or participating in communion.


Orthodox confession is not a process in which you confess your sins to a priest who then personally grants you absolution from a treasury of merit the church possesses in exchange for your performance of certain works. It is a process in which the priest serves as an accountability partner as you confess your sins to God. During it, you and the priest stand before the altar together as you make your confession. God grants the absolution. The priest's role is as guide to the penitent in executing Jesus' commandment "Go and sin no more." Of course, Orthodox Christians are also encouraged to confess their sins directly to God in the absence of a priest or church if one is not available.

It is the difference between a gatekeeper and a patient going to his doctor, telling him symptoms and being told the diagnosis and treatment.

Given what 1st Corinthians says about communion and how it can cause sickness and death in those who receive it unworthily, treating it as a prescription medication is a good thing. In fact the church has always done this - the early church dismissed the unbaptized from the service before communion and before the 20th century most churches that taught some form of the real presence had closed communions for this reason.

Quote:

Likewise, while fasting and disciplined prayer are clearly encouraged in Scripture, the Bible does not mandate fixed, universal schedules or detailed systems for all believers. In fact, it warns against turning external rules about food or practices into binding spiritual requirements, noting that such regulations can appear wise but don't necessarily produce true spiritual transformation. See Colossians 2:20-23...My concern is that these practices can become treated as necessary structures through which grace is mediated or dispensed.


Let's go back to the very original fast commanded by God.

"And the Lord God commanded the man, saying, "Of every tree of the garden you may freely eat; but of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil you shall not eat, for in the day that you eat of it you shall surely die." (Genesis 2:16)

The proximate cause of the fall of man was our refusal to fast: "So when the woman saw that the tree was good for food, that it was [a]pleasant to the eyes, and a tree desirable to make one wise, she took of its fruit and ate. She also gave to her husband with her, and he ate." (Genesis 3:6)

That was a binding regulation was it not? As a self-professed Calvinist, I presume that you adhere to covenant theology and not dispensationalism (if I'm wrong about that, I'd really recommend reading this book by Dr. John Gerstner, forwarded by R.C. Sproul.). So you can't simply dismiss this as irrelevant to our time.

Fasting is still relevant to us today. In fact, it is part of all pagan religions - Rabbinic Judaism, Islam, Hinduism, Zoroastrianism, etc. Sort of an ancestral memory of that original trauma passed down over time as the original monotheism devolved, I think.

It is something all Christians are called to engage in (Matthew 9:15). While it is not a practice that can justify us in the eyes of God, it is a practice through which God's grace is mediated and dispensed. Jesus did not need to be baptized, and yet he was. Jesus did not need to fast, and yet he did (40 days, the length of our Lenten fast today). Jesus carried His cross, we are to carry ours.

Which then brings up the question of how one should fast. Should I make this up as I go along? Should I fast from the same things on a set schedule? What should I fast from? Should I pick that myself? Can I substitute abstinance from other things (for example, watching football or time on Sicem365.com) for food? No. Our Creator knew of The Brain Gut Connection. After all, He made it. Fasting from food is fundamental to "go and sin no more."

The answer of the Orthodox church is from the Didache, an early Christian writing that was the Bible's contemporary and gave many instructions on living out the Christian faith: "Don't let your fasting coincide with those of the hypocrites.They fast on the 2nd [Monday] and 5th [Thursday] days of the week. So, you should fast on the 4th day [Wednesday] and the preparation [Friday] day of the week." That is the pattern of fasting we Orthodox still follow today, 1800 years later.

"Thus says the LORD: "Stand by the roads, and look, and ask for the ancient paths, where the good way is; and walk in it, and find rest for your souls." (Jeremiah 6:16).

Quote:


The heart of the issue is not whether these practices can be beneficial, but whether they should be considered binding or essential in the way described. Some of this seems to substitute a set of rules for a personal relationship with Christ.



The problem with "the personal relationship with Christ" is that this phrase itself is unbiblical. I understand where it came from - to illustrate that every individual must come to faith individually instead being free riders on organizational, cultural, or familial coat tails. But what it has become strikes at the very heart of how the Christian faith is lived out: communally in the church. "The norm of the Christian faith is not isolated believers, little islands of spirituality, but a continent of Christians banded together by the Spirit. We are baptized into one body, the body of Jesus. Our so-called personal relationship with Jesus is indeed with his person - his body of which all other believers are a part. Fingers don't have a relationship with Jesus apart from the hand, the hand from the arm, the arm from the shoulder, and so on." The phrase itself has become destructive to the church at large.

What's "destructive to the church at large" is having non-believers considered as part of the "church", who don't have a "personal relationship with Jesus", but instead believe that as long as they have membership in and engage in the activities of an institution, they are part of Jesus' body. This is what "institutionalization" of Jesus' church does, and it is the real destroyer of churches. It's what happened when the state of Rome entered Christianity and adopted pagan beliefs and practices into the "institution". The result is what we're seeing today, how churches don't even know what the true gospel is and are even flatly denying it, and are practicing egregious, rank idolatry and heresy and can't even recognize it. The result is that there are unregenerate people being part of the man-made "institution", and moving Christianity in a direction away from the true church and saving gospel of Jesus.

Yup.
Mothra
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BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

It's not a special name for her answer. It is her answer. Not "it shall be," but "let it be."

It is her answer as Roman Catholics call it. No surprise they want to frame it as an obedience.

"Let it be" as an answer to "Will you?" is a personal choice.
"Let it be" as an answer to "You WILL" is submission to God's choice.

In other words, obedience.

No, in other words, agreement with.

Even better. Call it what you want, there's no evidence of anything but consent on Mary's part.

Simply asserting it doesn't make it any more true that it already wasn't.

There was no more consent involved in the "you will" to Mary as there was in the "you will be mute" to Zechariah when the same angel announced to him the birth of John the Baptist.

I suspect Zechariah would disagree with you.

^^^ This is an example of how a Roman Catholic has to dig his hole deeper into absurdity in order to continue defending a defeated viewpoint. Here, he has to argue that Zechariah could have refused to be mute when the angel declared it as his punishment from God, and thus thwart God's declaration. He has to, in order to stay consistent with his view about Mary.

Back up and read.

I suggest that you stop being vague and ambiguous in your responses, if you want to communicate better.

This is his modus operandi. Problem is, he is in over his head in a religious discussion.
Sam Lowry
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BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

It's not a special name for her answer. It is her answer. Not "it shall be," but "let it be."

It is her answer as Roman Catholics call it. No surprise they want to frame it as an obedience.

"Let it be" as an answer to "Will you?" is a personal choice.
"Let it be" as an answer to "You WILL" is submission to God's choice.

In other words, obedience.

No, in other words, agreement with.

Even better. Call it what you want, there's no evidence of anything but consent on Mary's part.

Simply asserting it doesn't make it any more true that it already wasn't.

There was no more consent involved in the "you will" to Mary as there was in the "you will be mute" to Zechariah when the same angel announced to him the birth of John the Baptist.

I suspect Zechariah would disagree with you.

^^^ This is an example of how a Roman Catholic has to dig his hole deeper into absurdity in order to continue defending a defeated viewpoint. Here, he has to argue that Zechariah could have refused to be mute when the angel declared it as his punishment from God, and thus thwart God's declaration. He has to, in order to stay consistent with his view about Mary.

Back up and read.

If you're saying Zechariah would not agree that his "You will" is the same as Mary's "You will", then what on earth do you base that on? Regardless, it wouldn't even be relevant, as what Zechariah believes (as if we're even in position to know this) doesn't even change the argument at all. The "you will" is the same kind of declaration. To suggest one implies consent while the other doesn't is a completely baseless form of reasoning.

The angel didn't wait for Zechariah to say anything. He was struck dumb for his unbelief.

Which has what to do with the fact that the angel's "you will" did not involve his consent, in the same way that it didn't for Mary?

Nothing. Any attempt to turn either "you will" into a declaration that is contingent upon the person's consent or obedience is sheer dishonesty or ignorance.

Biblical language (and language in general) is more nuanced than that. The future tense isn't always just a flat declaration. It can also serve as a promise, prediction, or command. The Ten Commandments are a good example.

You also ignore the form of Mary's response. "Fiat" is a jussive subjunctive (from the Latin "iussus," meaning ordered or commanded). She's expressly giving the word for it to be done as the angel has said.
DallasBear9902
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Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

It's not a special name for her answer. It is her answer. Not "it shall be," but "let it be."

It is her answer as Roman Catholics call it. No surprise they want to frame it as an obedience.

"Let it be" as an answer to "Will you?" is a personal choice.
"Let it be" as an answer to "You WILL" is submission to God's choice.

In other words, obedience.

No, in other words, agreement with.

Even better. Call it what you want, there's no evidence of anything but consent on Mary's part.

Simply asserting it doesn't make it any more true that it already wasn't.

There was no more consent involved in the "you will" to Mary as there was in the "you will be mute" to Zechariah when the same angel announced to him the birth of John the Baptist.

I suspect Zechariah would disagree with you.

^^^ This is an example of how a Roman Catholic has to dig his hole deeper into absurdity in order to continue defending a defeated viewpoint. Here, he has to argue that Zechariah could have refused to be mute when the angel declared it as his punishment from God, and thus thwart God's declaration. He has to, in order to stay consistent with his view about Mary.

Back up and read.

If you're saying Zechariah would not agree that his "You will" is the same as Mary's "You will", then what on earth do you base that on? Regardless, it wouldn't even be relevant, as what Zechariah believes (as if we're even in position to know this) doesn't even change the argument at all. The "you will" is the same kind of declaration. To suggest one implies consent while the other doesn't is a completely baseless form of reasoning.

The angel didn't wait for Zechariah to say anything. He was struck dumb for his unbelief.

Which has what to do with the fact that the angel's "you will" did not involve his consent, in the same way that it didn't for Mary?

Nothing. Any attempt to turn either "you will" into a declaration that is contingent upon the person's consent or obedience is sheer dishonesty or ignorance.

Biblical language (and language in general) is more nuanced than that. The future tense isn't always just a flat declaration. It can also serve as a promise, prediction, or command. The Ten Commandments are a good example.

You also ignore the form of Mary's response. "Fiat" is a jussive subjunctive (from the Latin "iussus," meaning ordered or commanded). She's expressly giving the word for it to be done as the angel has said.

God bless your patience. I couldn't do it anymore.

If you want to play his game, he is once again ignoring the context of the entirety.

The analogous comparison between Mary and Zechariah is not the second "you will" that Gabriel utters to Z, but rather the first one uttered to Z.

13 Your wife Elizabeth will bear you a son, and you shall name him John.f
14 And you will have joy and gladness, and many will rejoice at his birth,
15 for he will be great in the sight of [the] Lord. He will drink neither wine nor strong drink.* He will be filled with the holy Spirit even from his mother's womb,g
16 and he will turn many of the children of Israel to the Lord their God.
17 He will go before him in the spirit and power of Elijah* to turn the hearts of fathers toward children and the disobedient to the understanding of the righteous, to prepare a people fit for the Lord."h

Z responds to this "you shall" with disbelief. THEN Gabriel responds

20 But now you will be speechless and unable to talk* until the day these things take place, because you did not believe my words, which will be fulfilled at their proper time."j

So, even though Z was presented with an initial "you shall" by Gabriel, his unbelief is corrected by affliction to his speech and the correction will continue until Z obeys the initial "you shall".

Z's speech faculties, as we know, are finally restored after John's circumcision when Z expresses his [submission/consent/obedience] by naming the child John, and not a moment before. Would Z ever regain the ability to speak but for naming the child John?
Sam Lowry
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DallasBear9902 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

It's not a special name for her answer. It is her answer. Not "it shall be," but "let it be."

It is her answer as Roman Catholics call it. No surprise they want to frame it as an obedience.

"Let it be" as an answer to "Will you?" is a personal choice.
"Let it be" as an answer to "You WILL" is submission to God's choice.

In other words, obedience.

No, in other words, agreement with.

Even better. Call it what you want, there's no evidence of anything but consent on Mary's part.

Simply asserting it doesn't make it any more true that it already wasn't.

There was no more consent involved in the "you will" to Mary as there was in the "you will be mute" to Zechariah when the same angel announced to him the birth of John the Baptist.

I suspect Zechariah would disagree with you.

^^^ This is an example of how a Roman Catholic has to dig his hole deeper into absurdity in order to continue defending a defeated viewpoint. Here, he has to argue that Zechariah could have refused to be mute when the angel declared it as his punishment from God, and thus thwart God's declaration. He has to, in order to stay consistent with his view about Mary.

Back up and read.

If you're saying Zechariah would not agree that his "You will" is the same as Mary's "You will", then what on earth do you base that on? Regardless, it wouldn't even be relevant, as what Zechariah believes (as if we're even in position to know this) doesn't even change the argument at all. The "you will" is the same kind of declaration. To suggest one implies consent while the other doesn't is a completely baseless form of reasoning.

The angel didn't wait for Zechariah to say anything. He was struck dumb for his unbelief.

Which has what to do with the fact that the angel's "you will" did not involve his consent, in the same way that it didn't for Mary?

Nothing. Any attempt to turn either "you will" into a declaration that is contingent upon the person's consent or obedience is sheer dishonesty or ignorance.

Biblical language (and language in general) is more nuanced than that. The future tense isn't always just a flat declaration. It can also serve as a promise, prediction, or command. The Ten Commandments are a good example.

You also ignore the form of Mary's response. "Fiat" is a jussive subjunctive (from the Latin "iussus," meaning ordered or commanded). She's expressly giving the word for it to be done as the angel has said.

The analogous comparison between Mary and Zechariah is not the second "you will" that Gabriel utters to Z, but rather the first one uttered to Z.

Good point.
BusyTarpDuster2017
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Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

It's not a special name for her answer. It is her answer. Not "it shall be," but "let it be."

It is her answer as Roman Catholics call it. No surprise they want to frame it as an obedience.

"Let it be" as an answer to "Will you?" is a personal choice.
"Let it be" as an answer to "You WILL" is submission to God's choice.

In other words, obedience.

No, in other words, agreement with.

Even better. Call it what you want, there's no evidence of anything but consent on Mary's part.

Simply asserting it doesn't make it any more true that it already wasn't.

There was no more consent involved in the "you will" to Mary as there was in the "you will be mute" to Zechariah when the same angel announced to him the birth of John the Baptist.

I suspect Zechariah would disagree with you.

^^^ This is an example of how a Roman Catholic has to dig his hole deeper into absurdity in order to continue defending a defeated viewpoint. Here, he has to argue that Zechariah could have refused to be mute when the angel declared it as his punishment from God, and thus thwart God's declaration. He has to, in order to stay consistent with his view about Mary.

Back up and read.

If you're saying Zechariah would not agree that his "You will" is the same as Mary's "You will", then what on earth do you base that on? Regardless, it wouldn't even be relevant, as what Zechariah believes (as if we're even in position to know this) doesn't even change the argument at all. The "you will" is the same kind of declaration. To suggest one implies consent while the other doesn't is a completely baseless form of reasoning.

The angel didn't wait for Zechariah to say anything. He was struck dumb for his unbelief.

Which has what to do with the fact that the angel's "you will" did not involve his consent, in the same way that it didn't for Mary?

Nothing. Any attempt to turn either "you will" into a declaration that is contingent upon the person's consent or obedience is sheer dishonesty or ignorance.

Biblical language (and language in general) is more nuanced than that. The future tense isn't always just a flat declaration. It can also serve as a promise, prediction, or command. The Ten Commandments are a good example.

You also ignore the form of Mary's response. "Fiat" is a jussive subjunctive (from the Latin "iussus," meaning ordered or commanded). She's expressly giving the word for it to be done as the angel has said.

Mary did not speak in Latin. Neither did Luke write his gospel in Latin.

The Greek form of "Let it be done to me" is in the aorist optative, which means Mary is speaking as if she is wishing for all what was said by the angel to happen. This is not her giving permission or promising obedience, this is her looking forward to the fulfillment of the declaration given to her.
BusyTarpDuster2017
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DallasBear9902 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

It's not a special name for her answer. It is her answer. Not "it shall be," but "let it be."

It is her answer as Roman Catholics call it. No surprise they want to frame it as an obedience.

"Let it be" as an answer to "Will you?" is a personal choice.
"Let it be" as an answer to "You WILL" is submission to God's choice.

In other words, obedience.

No, in other words, agreement with.

Even better. Call it what you want, there's no evidence of anything but consent on Mary's part.

Simply asserting it doesn't make it any more true that it already wasn't.

There was no more consent involved in the "you will" to Mary as there was in the "you will be mute" to Zechariah when the same angel announced to him the birth of John the Baptist.

I suspect Zechariah would disagree with you.

^^^ This is an example of how a Roman Catholic has to dig his hole deeper into absurdity in order to continue defending a defeated viewpoint. Here, he has to argue that Zechariah could have refused to be mute when the angel declared it as his punishment from God, and thus thwart God's declaration. He has to, in order to stay consistent with his view about Mary.

Back up and read.

If you're saying Zechariah would not agree that his "You will" is the same as Mary's "You will", then what on earth do you base that on? Regardless, it wouldn't even be relevant, as what Zechariah believes (as if we're even in position to know this) doesn't even change the argument at all. The "you will" is the same kind of declaration. To suggest one implies consent while the other doesn't is a completely baseless form of reasoning.

The angel didn't wait for Zechariah to say anything. He was struck dumb for his unbelief.

Which has what to do with the fact that the angel's "you will" did not involve his consent, in the same way that it didn't for Mary?

Nothing. Any attempt to turn either "you will" into a declaration that is contingent upon the person's consent or obedience is sheer dishonesty or ignorance.

Biblical language (and language in general) is more nuanced than that. The future tense isn't always just a flat declaration. It can also serve as a promise, prediction, or command. The Ten Commandments are a good example.

You also ignore the form of Mary's response. "Fiat" is a jussive subjunctive (from the Latin "iussus," meaning ordered or commanded). She's expressly giving the word for it to be done as the angel has said.

God bless your patience. I couldn't do it anymore.

If you want to play his game, he is once again ignoring the context of the entirety.

The analogous comparison between Mary and Zechariah is not the second "you will" that Gabriel utters to Z, but rather the first one uttered to Z.

13 Your wife Elizabeth will bear you a son, and you shall name him John.f
14 And you will have joy and gladness, and many will rejoice at his birth,
15 for he will be great in the sight of [the] Lord. He will drink neither wine nor strong drink.* He will be filled with the holy Spirit even from his mother's womb,g
16 and he will turn many of the children of Israel to the Lord their God.
17 He will go before him in the spirit and power of Elijah* to turn the hearts of fathers toward children and the disobedient to the understanding of the righteous, to prepare a people fit for the Lord."h

Z responds to this "you shall" with disbelief. THEN Gabriel responds

20 But now you will be speechless and unable to talk* until the day these things take place, because you did not believe my words, which will be fulfilled at their proper time."j

So, even though Z was presented with an initial "you shall" by Gabriel, his unbelief is corrected by affliction to his speech and the correction will continue until Z obeys the initial "you shall".

Z's speech faculties, as we know, are finally restored after John's circumcision when Z expresses his [submission/consent/obedience] by naming the child John, and not a moment before. Would Z ever regain the ability to speak but for naming the child John?

"You shall name him..." is a command as well as a foretelling of inevitable outcome, the same kind of command/foretelling given to Mary about naming her son Jesus. Since Zechariah didn't believe the angel, the angel made sure that the part he was to obey (naming his son John) was inevitable, by making his ability to speak ever again contingent upon it. I don't consider that giving him a choice.

But the "your wife will give birth", "you will have joy and gladness", "he will be great in the site of the Lord", "you will be mute", etc - all these are not commands to be obeyed, but a foretelling of an outcome. None of which involve anyone's "permission" or obedience for it to be fulfilled. This is the same kind of declaration given to Mary about her giving birth to Jesus.

There is just no reasonable, rational way to derive from the Anunciation story that the birth of Jesus, and thus God's entire plan of salvation, hinged entirely upon Mary giving her permission or her having to successfully obey something.

Sam Lowry
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BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

It's not a special name for her answer. It is her answer. Not "it shall be," but "let it be."

It is her answer as Roman Catholics call it. No surprise they want to frame it as an obedience.

"Let it be" as an answer to "Will you?" is a personal choice.
"Let it be" as an answer to "You WILL" is submission to God's choice.

In other words, obedience.

No, in other words, agreement with.

Even better. Call it what you want, there's no evidence of anything but consent on Mary's part.

Simply asserting it doesn't make it any more true that it already wasn't.

There was no more consent involved in the "you will" to Mary as there was in the "you will be mute" to Zechariah when the same angel announced to him the birth of John the Baptist.

I suspect Zechariah would disagree with you.

^^^ This is an example of how a Roman Catholic has to dig his hole deeper into absurdity in order to continue defending a defeated viewpoint. Here, he has to argue that Zechariah could have refused to be mute when the angel declared it as his punishment from God, and thus thwart God's declaration. He has to, in order to stay consistent with his view about Mary.

Back up and read.

If you're saying Zechariah would not agree that his "You will" is the same as Mary's "You will", then what on earth do you base that on? Regardless, it wouldn't even be relevant, as what Zechariah believes (as if we're even in position to know this) doesn't even change the argument at all. The "you will" is the same kind of declaration. To suggest one implies consent while the other doesn't is a completely baseless form of reasoning.

The angel didn't wait for Zechariah to say anything. He was struck dumb for his unbelief.

Which has what to do with the fact that the angel's "you will" did not involve his consent, in the same way that it didn't for Mary?

Nothing. Any attempt to turn either "you will" into a declaration that is contingent upon the person's consent or obedience is sheer dishonesty or ignorance.

Biblical language (and language in general) is more nuanced than that. The future tense isn't always just a flat declaration. It can also serve as a promise, prediction, or command. The Ten Commandments are a good example.

You also ignore the form of Mary's response. "Fiat" is a jussive subjunctive (from the Latin "iussus," meaning ordered or commanded). She's expressly giving the word for it to be done as the angel has said.

Mary did not speak in Latin. Neither did Luke write his gospel in Latin.

The Greek form of "Let it be done to me" is in the aorist optative, which means Mary is speaking as if she is wishing for all what was said by the angel to happen. This is not her giving permission or promising obedience, this is her looking forward to the fulfillment of the declaration given to her.

I know the Greek. It's effectively the same thing.
BusyTarpDuster2017
How long do you want to ignore this user?
Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

It's not a special name for her answer. It is her answer. Not "it shall be," but "let it be."

It is her answer as Roman Catholics call it. No surprise they want to frame it as an obedience.

"Let it be" as an answer to "Will you?" is a personal choice.
"Let it be" as an answer to "You WILL" is submission to God's choice.

In other words, obedience.

No, in other words, agreement with.

Even better. Call it what you want, there's no evidence of anything but consent on Mary's part.

Simply asserting it doesn't make it any more true that it already wasn't.

There was no more consent involved in the "you will" to Mary as there was in the "you will be mute" to Zechariah when the same angel announced to him the birth of John the Baptist.

I suspect Zechariah would disagree with you.

^^^ This is an example of how a Roman Catholic has to dig his hole deeper into absurdity in order to continue defending a defeated viewpoint. Here, he has to argue that Zechariah could have refused to be mute when the angel declared it as his punishment from God, and thus thwart God's declaration. He has to, in order to stay consistent with his view about Mary.

Back up and read.

If you're saying Zechariah would not agree that his "You will" is the same as Mary's "You will", then what on earth do you base that on? Regardless, it wouldn't even be relevant, as what Zechariah believes (as if we're even in position to know this) doesn't even change the argument at all. The "you will" is the same kind of declaration. To suggest one implies consent while the other doesn't is a completely baseless form of reasoning.

The angel didn't wait for Zechariah to say anything. He was struck dumb for his unbelief.

Which has what to do with the fact that the angel's "you will" did not involve his consent, in the same way that it didn't for Mary?

Nothing. Any attempt to turn either "you will" into a declaration that is contingent upon the person's consent or obedience is sheer dishonesty or ignorance.

Biblical language (and language in general) is more nuanced than that. The future tense isn't always just a flat declaration. It can also serve as a promise, prediction, or command. The Ten Commandments are a good example.

You also ignore the form of Mary's response. "Fiat" is a jussive subjunctive (from the Latin "iussus," meaning ordered or commanded). She's expressly giving the word for it to be done as the angel has said.

Mary did not speak in Latin. Neither did Luke write his gospel in Latin.

The Greek form of "Let it be done to me" is in the aorist optative, which means Mary is speaking as if she is wishing for all what was said by the angel to happen. This is not her giving permission or promising obedience, this is her looking forward to the fulfillment of the declaration given to her.

I know the Greek. It's effectively the same thing.

You can tell yourself what you want. But thinking you're correct, and actually being correct are different things.
Sam Lowry
How long do you want to ignore this user?
BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

It's not a special name for her answer. It is her answer. Not "it shall be," but "let it be."

It is her answer as Roman Catholics call it. No surprise they want to frame it as an obedience.

"Let it be" as an answer to "Will you?" is a personal choice.
"Let it be" as an answer to "You WILL" is submission to God's choice.

In other words, obedience.

No, in other words, agreement with.

Even better. Call it what you want, there's no evidence of anything but consent on Mary's part.

Simply asserting it doesn't make it any more true that it already wasn't.

There was no more consent involved in the "you will" to Mary as there was in the "you will be mute" to Zechariah when the same angel announced to him the birth of John the Baptist.

I suspect Zechariah would disagree with you.

^^^ This is an example of how a Roman Catholic has to dig his hole deeper into absurdity in order to continue defending a defeated viewpoint. Here, he has to argue that Zechariah could have refused to be mute when the angel declared it as his punishment from God, and thus thwart God's declaration. He has to, in order to stay consistent with his view about Mary.

Back up and read.

If you're saying Zechariah would not agree that his "You will" is the same as Mary's "You will", then what on earth do you base that on? Regardless, it wouldn't even be relevant, as what Zechariah believes (as if we're even in position to know this) doesn't even change the argument at all. The "you will" is the same kind of declaration. To suggest one implies consent while the other doesn't is a completely baseless form of reasoning.

The angel didn't wait for Zechariah to say anything. He was struck dumb for his unbelief.

Which has what to do with the fact that the angel's "you will" did not involve his consent, in the same way that it didn't for Mary?

Nothing. Any attempt to turn either "you will" into a declaration that is contingent upon the person's consent or obedience is sheer dishonesty or ignorance.

Biblical language (and language in general) is more nuanced than that. The future tense isn't always just a flat declaration. It can also serve as a promise, prediction, or command. The Ten Commandments are a good example.

You also ignore the form of Mary's response. "Fiat" is a jussive subjunctive (from the Latin "iussus," meaning ordered or commanded). She's expressly giving the word for it to be done as the angel has said.

Mary did not speak in Latin. Neither did Luke write his gospel in Latin.

The Greek form of "Let it be done to me" is in the aorist optative, which means Mary is speaking as if she is wishing for all what was said by the angel to happen. This is not her giving permission or promising obedience, this is her looking forward to the fulfillment of the declaration given to her.

I know the Greek. It's effectively the same thing.

You can tell yourself what you want. But thinking you're correct, and actually being correct are different things.
How well do you know the languages? I've read every genre of Roman literature and most genres of Greek, including of course the NT. I lean more on Latin because it's a bit easier and I'm used to hearing it in church, but I know what I'm talking about. You look at the text, take it at face value, and the simple, straightforward meaning is that Mary consents to God's plan.
BusyTarpDuster2017
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Sam LowryIf you're saying Zechariah would not agree that his "You will" is the same as Mary's "You will", then what on earth do you base that on? Regardless, it wouldn't even be relevant, as what Zechariah believes (as if we're even in position to know this) doesn't even change the argument at all. The "you will" is the same kind of declaration. To suggest one implies consent while the other doesn't is a completely baseless form of reasoning. said:

Quote:

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The angel didn't wait for Zechariah to say anything. He was struck dumb for his unbelief.

Which has what to do with the fact that the angel's "you will" did not involve his consent, in the same way that it didn't for Mary?

Nothing. Any attempt to turn either "you will" into a declaration that is contingent upon the person's consent or obedience is sheer dishonesty or ignorance.

Biblical language (and language in general) is more nuanced than that. The future tense isn't always just a flat declaration. It can also serve as a promise, prediction, or command. The Ten Commandments are a good example.

You also ignore the form of Mary's response. "Fiat" is a jussive subjunctive (from the Latin "iussus," meaning ordered or commanded). She's expressly giving the word for it to be done as the angel has said.

Mary did not speak in Latin. Neither did Luke write his gospel in Latin.

The Greek form of "Let it be done to me" is in the aorist optative, which means Mary is speaking as if she is wishing for all what was said by the angel to happen. This is not her giving permission or promising obedience, this is her looking forward to the fulfillment of the declaration given to her.

I know the Greek. It's effectively the same thing.

You can tell yourself what you want. But thinking you're correct, and actually being correct are different things.

How well do you know the languages? I've read every genre of Roman literature and most genres of Greek, including of course the NT. I lean more on Latin because it's a bit easier and I'm used to hearing it in church, but I know what I'm talking about. You look at the text, take it at face value, and the simple, straightforward meaning is that Mary consents to God's plan.

Who cares about resumes? Everyone here in this forum is an accomplished genius millionaire who's dating supermodels and who's fluent in Greek, don't you know? What only matters are arguments with facts and sound, logical reasoning - not empty assertions and appeals to (self) authority.

The explanation you gave regarding the Latin translation of that phrase in no way matches the Greek aorist optative. What amuses me is how you Roman Catholics champion the Septuagint to support your view of the canon, but then you have to go to the Latin translation (which has errors) to support other views.

I specifically recall you quoting the verse in Genesis: "SHE will crush the head of the serpent" one time, which is a blatantly false Latin mistranslation that found its way into Catholic bibles, which was then used to support the Catholic view on Mary, even being quoted by popes. So I don't know much credence one should give to your Church's Latin translation, nor to your understanding of it.
Sam Lowry
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BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam LowryIf you're saying Zechariah would not agree that his "You will" is the same as Mary's "You will", then what on earth do you base that on? Regardless, it wouldn't even be relevant, as what Zechariah believes (as if we're even in position to know this) doesn't even change the argument at all. The "you will" is the same kind of declaration. To suggest one implies consent while the other doesn't is a completely baseless form of reasoning. said:

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The angel didn't wait for Zechariah to say anything. He was struck dumb for his unbelief.

Which has what to do with the fact that the angel's "you will" did not involve his consent, in the same way that it didn't for Mary?

Nothing. Any attempt to turn either "you will" into a declaration that is contingent upon the person's consent or obedience is sheer dishonesty or ignorance.

Biblical language (and language in general) is more nuanced than that. The future tense isn't always just a flat declaration. It can also serve as a promise, prediction, or command. The Ten Commandments are a good example.

You also ignore the form of Mary's response. "Fiat" is a jussive subjunctive (from the Latin "iussus," meaning ordered or commanded). She's expressly giving the word for it to be done as the angel has said.

Mary did not speak in Latin. Neither did Luke write his gospel in Latin.

The Greek form of "Let it be done to me" is in the aorist optative, which means Mary is speaking as if she is wishing for all what was said by the angel to happen. This is not her giving permission or promising obedience, this is her looking forward to the fulfillment of the declaration given to her.

I know the Greek. It's effectively the same thing.

You can tell yourself what you want. But thinking you're correct, and actually being correct are different things.

How well do you know the languages? I've read every genre of Roman literature and most genres of Greek, including of course the NT. I lean more on Latin because it's a bit easier and I'm used to hearing it in church, but I know what I'm talking about. You look at the text, take it at face value, and the simple, straightforward meaning is that Mary consents to God's plan.

The explanation you gave regarding the Latin translation of that phrase in no way matches the Greek aorist optative.

But it does. The choice of mood only shows the reverence of her interior assent.

We've had no conversations about Mary and the serpent.
BusyTarpDuster2017
How long do you want to ignore this user?
Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam LowryIf you're saying Zechariah would not agree that his "You will" is the same as Mary's "You will", then what on earth do you base that on? Regardless, it wouldn't even be relevant, as what Zechariah believes (as if we're even in position to know this) doesn't even change the argument at all. The "you will" is the same kind of declaration. To suggest one implies consent while the other doesn't is a completely baseless form of reasoning. said:

Quote:

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Quote:

Quote:

The angel didn't wait for Zechariah to say anything. He was struck dumb for his unbelief.

Which has what to do with the fact that the angel's "you will" did not involve his consent, in the same way that it didn't for Mary?

Nothing. Any attempt to turn either "you will" into a declaration that is contingent upon the person's consent or obedience is sheer dishonesty or ignorance.

Biblical language (and language in general) is more nuanced than that. The future tense isn't always just a flat declaration. It can also serve as a promise, prediction, or command. The Ten Commandments are a good example.

You also ignore the form of Mary's response. "Fiat" is a jussive subjunctive (from the Latin "iussus," meaning ordered or commanded). She's expressly giving the word for it to be done as the angel has said.

Mary did not speak in Latin. Neither did Luke write his gospel in Latin.

The Greek form of "Let it be done to me" is in the aorist optative, which means Mary is speaking as if she is wishing for all what was said by the angel to happen. This is not her giving permission or promising obedience, this is her looking forward to the fulfillment of the declaration given to her.

I know the Greek. It's effectively the same thing.

You can tell yourself what you want. But thinking you're correct, and actually being correct are different things.

How well do you know the languages? I've read every genre of Roman literature and most genres of Greek, including of course the NT. I lean more on Latin because it's a bit easier and I'm used to hearing it in church, but I know what I'm talking about. You look at the text, take it at face value, and the simple, straightforward meaning is that Mary consents to God's plan.

The explanation you gave regarding the Latin translation of that phrase in no way matches the Greek aorist optative.

But it does. The choice of mood only shows the reverence of her interior assent.

We've had no conversations about Mary and the serpent.

"Reverence to her interior assent" is just your pure assumption. The Greek indicates nothing of the sort.

There simply isn't anything in that passage, verb tense and mood included, that indicates a choice was given to Mary. This is just another instance of Roman Catholicism having to derive from a verb's tense to "prove" something about Mary, such as their absolutely silly argument that their "full of grace" translation means that Mary was sinless. It's all just ad hoc, made up nonsense, just like your "interior assent" argument.

And are you denying that you ever quoted that verse to say "SHE" crushes the head of the serpent?
Sam Lowry
How long do you want to ignore this user?
BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam LowryIf you're saying Zechariah would not agree that his "You will" is the same as Mary's "You will", then what on earth do you base that on? Regardless, it wouldn't even be relevant, as what Zechariah believes (as if we're even in position to know this) doesn't even change the argument at all. The "you will" is the same kind of declaration. To suggest one implies consent while the other doesn't is a completely baseless form of reasoning. said:

Quote:

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The angel didn't wait for Zechariah to say anything. He was struck dumb for his unbelief.

Which has what to do with the fact that the angel's "you will" did not involve his consent, in the same way that it didn't for Mary?

Nothing. Any attempt to turn either "you will" into a declaration that is contingent upon the person's consent or obedience is sheer dishonesty or ignorance.

Biblical language (and language in general) is more nuanced than that. The future tense isn't always just a flat declaration. It can also serve as a promise, prediction, or command. The Ten Commandments are a good example.

You also ignore the form of Mary's response. "Fiat" is a jussive subjunctive (from the Latin "iussus," meaning ordered or commanded). She's expressly giving the word for it to be done as the angel has said.

Mary did not speak in Latin. Neither did Luke write his gospel in Latin.

The Greek form of "Let it be done to me" is in the aorist optative, which means Mary is speaking as if she is wishing for all what was said by the angel to happen. This is not her giving permission or promising obedience, this is her looking forward to the fulfillment of the declaration given to her.

I know the Greek. It's effectively the same thing.

You can tell yourself what you want. But thinking you're correct, and actually being correct are different things.

How well do you know the languages? I've read every genre of Roman literature and most genres of Greek, including of course the NT. I lean more on Latin because it's a bit easier and I'm used to hearing it in church, but I know what I'm talking about. You look at the text, take it at face value, and the simple, straightforward meaning is that Mary consents to God's plan.

The explanation you gave regarding the Latin translation of that phrase in no way matches the Greek aorist optative.

But it does. The choice of mood only shows the reverence of her interior assent.

We've had no conversations about Mary and the serpent.

"Interior assent" is just your pure assumption. The Greek indicates nothing of the sort.

There simply isn't anything in that passage, verb tense and mood included, that indicates a choice was given to Mary. This is just another instance of Roman Catholicism having to derive from a verb's tense to "prove" something about Mary, such as their absolutely silly argument that "to be graced" means that Mary was sinless. It's all just ad hoc, made up nonsense, just like your "interior assent" argument.

And are you denying that you ever quoted that verse to say "SHE" crushes the head of the serpent?

Whether in Latin, Greek, or English, Mary said "let it be done."

I think you are confusing me with someone else as far as the serpent discussion goes.
BusyTarpDuster2017
How long do you want to ignore this user?
Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam LowryIf you're saying Zechariah would not agree that his "You will" is the same as Mary's "You will", then what on earth do you base that on? Regardless, it wouldn't even be relevant, as what Zechariah believes (as if we're even in position to know this) doesn't even change the argument at all. The "you will" is the same kind of declaration. To suggest one implies consent while the other doesn't is a completely baseless form of reasoning. said:

Quote:

Quote:

Quote:

Quote:

Quote:

Quote:

The angel didn't wait for Zechariah to say anything. He was struck dumb for his unbelief.

Which has what to do with the fact that the angel's "you will" did not involve his consent, in the same way that it didn't for Mary?

Nothing. Any attempt to turn either "you will" into a declaration that is contingent upon the person's consent or obedience is sheer dishonesty or ignorance.

Biblical language (and language in general) is more nuanced than that. The future tense isn't always just a flat declaration. It can also serve as a promise, prediction, or command. The Ten Commandments are a good example.

You also ignore the form of Mary's response. "Fiat" is a jussive subjunctive (from the Latin "iussus," meaning ordered or commanded). She's expressly giving the word for it to be done as the angel has said.

Mary did not speak in Latin. Neither did Luke write his gospel in Latin.

The Greek form of "Let it be done to me" is in the aorist optative, which means Mary is speaking as if she is wishing for all what was said by the angel to happen. This is not her giving permission or promising obedience, this is her looking forward to the fulfillment of the declaration given to her.

I know the Greek. It's effectively the same thing.

You can tell yourself what you want. But thinking you're correct, and actually being correct are different things.

How well do you know the languages? I've read every genre of Roman literature and most genres of Greek, including of course the NT. I lean more on Latin because it's a bit easier and I'm used to hearing it in church, but I know what I'm talking about. You look at the text, take it at face value, and the simple, straightforward meaning is that Mary consents to God's plan.

The explanation you gave regarding the Latin translation of that phrase in no way matches the Greek aorist optative.

But it does. The choice of mood only shows the reverence of her interior assent.

We've had no conversations about Mary and the serpent.

"Reverence to her Interior assent" is just your pure assumption. The Greek indicates nothing of the sort.

There simply isn't anything in that passage, verb tense and mood included, that indicates a choice was given to Mary. This is just another instance of Roman Catholicism having to derive from a verb's tense to "prove" something about Mary, such as their absolutely silly argument that "to be graced" means that Mary was sinless. It's all just ad hoc, made up nonsense, just like your "interior assent" argument.

And are you denying that you ever quoted that verse to say "SHE" crushes the head of the serpent?

Whether in Latin, Greek, or English, Mary said "let it be done."

I think you are confusing me with someone else as far as the serpent discussion goes.

And whether in Latin, Greek, or English, "let it be done" as a respose to God's declaration "you WILL" is not permission or obedience, it is submission to what's already been decided on God's part. Otherwise, you're saying that Mary could have falsified God simply by her choosing to. Your church's elevation of Mary is wicked and sickening to any true Christian.

And does this mean that you do deny that you ever quoted that verse in that way in this forum?
Sam Lowry
How long do you want to ignore this user?
BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam LowryIf you're saying Zechariah would not agree that his "You will" is the same as Mary's "You will", then what on earth do you base that on? Regardless, it wouldn't even be relevant, as what Zechariah believes (as if we're even in position to know this) doesn't even change the argument at all. The "you will" is the same kind of declaration. To suggest one implies consent while the other doesn't is a completely baseless form of reasoning. said:

Quote:

Quote:

Quote:

Quote:

Quote:

Quote:

The angel didn't wait for Zechariah to say anything. He was struck dumb for his unbelief.

Which has what to do with the fact that the angel's "you will" did not involve his consent, in the same way that it didn't for Mary?

Nothing. Any attempt to turn either "you will" into a declaration that is contingent upon the person's consent or obedience is sheer dishonesty or ignorance.

Biblical language (and language in general) is more nuanced than that. The future tense isn't always just a flat declaration. It can also serve as a promise, prediction, or command. The Ten Commandments are a good example.

You also ignore the form of Mary's response. "Fiat" is a jussive subjunctive (from the Latin "iussus," meaning ordered or commanded). She's expressly giving the word for it to be done as the angel has said.

Mary did not speak in Latin. Neither did Luke write his gospel in Latin.

The Greek form of "Let it be done to me" is in the aorist optative, which means Mary is speaking as if she is wishing for all what was said by the angel to happen. This is not her giving permission or promising obedience, this is her looking forward to the fulfillment of the declaration given to her.

I know the Greek. It's effectively the same thing.

You can tell yourself what you want. But thinking you're correct, and actually being correct are different things.

How well do you know the languages? I've read every genre of Roman literature and most genres of Greek, including of course the NT. I lean more on Latin because it's a bit easier and I'm used to hearing it in church, but I know what I'm talking about. You look at the text, take it at face value, and the simple, straightforward meaning is that Mary consents to God's plan.

The explanation you gave regarding the Latin translation of that phrase in no way matches the Greek aorist optative.

But it does. The choice of mood only shows the reverence of her interior assent.

We've had no conversations about Mary and the serpent.

"Reverence to her Interior assent" is just your pure assumption. The Greek indicates nothing of the sort.

There simply isn't anything in that passage, verb tense and mood included, that indicates a choice was given to Mary. This is just another instance of Roman Catholicism having to derive from a verb's tense to "prove" something about Mary, such as their absolutely silly argument that "to be graced" means that Mary was sinless. It's all just ad hoc, made up nonsense, just like your "interior assent" argument.

And are you denying that you ever quoted that verse to say "SHE" crushes the head of the serpent?

Whether in Latin, Greek, or English, Mary said "let it be done."

I think you are confusing me with someone else as far as the serpent discussion goes.

And whether in Latin, Greek, or English, "let it be done" as a respose to God's declaration "you WILL" is not permission or obedience, it is submission to what's already been decided on God's part. Otherwise, you're saying that Mary could have falsified God simply by her choosing to. Your church's elevation of Mary is wicked and sickening to any true Christian.

And does this mean that you do deny that you ever quoted that verse in that way in this forum?

I don't think I've ever talked about that verse with you, although I don't disagree with what others have said about it.

By your reasoning, we all "falsify" God every time we break his commandments (he says "thou shalt not," yet we do). No doubt it would have been sinful for Mary to refuse. Are you saying she was incapable of sin?
BusyTarpDuster2017
How long do you want to ignore this user?
Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam LowryIf you're saying Zechariah would not agree that his "You will" is the same as Mary's "You will", then what on earth do you base that on? Regardless, it wouldn't even be relevant, as what Zechariah believes (as if we're even in position to know this) doesn't even change the argument at all. The "you will" is the same kind of declaration. To suggest one implies consent while the other doesn't is a completely baseless form of reasoning. said:

Quote:

Quote:

Quote:

Quote:

Quote:

Quote:

The angel didn't wait for Zechariah to say anything. He was struck dumb for his unbelief.

Which has what to do with the fact that the angel's "you will" did not involve his consent, in the same way that it didn't for Mary?

Nothing. Any attempt to turn either "you will" into a declaration that is contingent upon the person's consent or obedience is sheer dishonesty or ignorance.

Biblical language (and language in general) is more nuanced than that. The future tense isn't always just a flat declaration. It can also serve as a promise, prediction, or command. The Ten Commandments are a good example.

You also ignore the form of Mary's response. "Fiat" is a jussive subjunctive (from the Latin "iussus," meaning ordered or commanded). She's expressly giving the word for it to be done as the angel has said.

Mary did not speak in Latin. Neither did Luke write his gospel in Latin.

The Greek form of "Let it be done to me" is in the aorist optative, which means Mary is speaking as if she is wishing for all what was said by the angel to happen. This is not her giving permission or promising obedience, this is her looking forward to the fulfillment of the declaration given to her.

I know the Greek. It's effectively the same thing.

You can tell yourself what you want. But thinking you're correct, and actually being correct are different things.

How well do you know the languages? I've read every genre of Roman literature and most genres of Greek, including of course the NT. I lean more on Latin because it's a bit easier and I'm used to hearing it in church, but I know what I'm talking about. You look at the text, take it at face value, and the simple, straightforward meaning is that Mary consents to God's plan.

The explanation you gave regarding the Latin translation of that phrase in no way matches the Greek aorist optative.

But it does. The choice of mood only shows the reverence of her interior assent.

We've had no conversations about Mary and the serpent.

"Reverence to her Interior assent" is just your pure assumption. The Greek indicates nothing of the sort.

There simply isn't anything in that passage, verb tense and mood included, that indicates a choice was given to Mary. This is just another instance of Roman Catholicism having to derive from a verb's tense to "prove" something about Mary, such as their absolutely silly argument that "to be graced" means that Mary was sinless. It's all just ad hoc, made up nonsense, just like your "interior assent" argument.

And are you denying that you ever quoted that verse to say "SHE" crushes the head of the serpent?

Whether in Latin, Greek, or English, Mary said "let it be done."

I think you are confusing me with someone else as far as the serpent discussion goes.

And whether in Latin, Greek, or English, "let it be done" as a respose to God's declaration "you WILL" is not permission or obedience, it is submission to what's already been decided on God's part. Otherwise, you're saying that Mary could have falsified God simply by her choosing to. Your church's elevation of Mary is wicked and sickening to any true Christian.

And does this mean that you do deny that you ever quoted that verse in that way in this forum?

I don't think I've ever talked about that verse with you, although I don't disagree with what others have said about it.

By your reasoning, we all "falsify" God every time we break his commandments (he says "thou shalt not," yet we do). No doubt it would have been sinful for Mary to refuse. Are you saying she was incapable of sin?

"Thou shalt not" is nothing like "you will bear a son". One is a command to be obeyed, the other is a foretelling of what God has preordained. The whole of the angel's message was a foretelling, an anouncement of what WILL BE - "you will bear a son, he will be great, he will be called Son of the Most Hight, God will give him the throne of David, he will rule forever...."

You Catholics just can't be honest.

And here's your quote from page 21 of the "How to Get to Heaven" thread:

"Yes, but not for the reasons you seem to think. I suspect St. Alphonsus Liguori was alluding to this verse and to Mary's role in reclaiming the world for Christ and crushing the serpent under her feet."

LOL. Of course you Roman Catholics agree with this mistranslation. Who'd have doubted it?
Sam Lowry
How long do you want to ignore this user?
BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam LowryIf you're saying Zechariah would not agree that his "You will" is the same as Mary's "You will", then what on earth do you base that on? Regardless, it wouldn't even be relevant, as what Zechariah believes (as if we're even in position to know this) doesn't even change the argument at all. The "you will" is the same kind of declaration. To suggest one implies consent while the other doesn't is a completely baseless form of reasoning. said:

Quote:

Quote:

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Quote:

Quote:

The angel didn't wait for Zechariah to say anything. He was struck dumb for his unbelief.

Which has what to do with the fact that the angel's "you will" did not involve his consent, in the same way that it didn't for Mary?

Nothing. Any attempt to turn either "you will" into a declaration that is contingent upon the person's consent or obedience is sheer dishonesty or ignorance.

Biblical language (and language in general) is more nuanced than that. The future tense isn't always just a flat declaration. It can also serve as a promise, prediction, or command. The Ten Commandments are a good example.

You also ignore the form of Mary's response. "Fiat" is a jussive subjunctive (from the Latin "iussus," meaning ordered or commanded). She's expressly giving the word for it to be done as the angel has said.

Mary did not speak in Latin. Neither did Luke write his gospel in Latin.

The Greek form of "Let it be done to me" is in the aorist optative, which means Mary is speaking as if she is wishing for all what was said by the angel to happen. This is not her giving permission or promising obedience, this is her looking forward to the fulfillment of the declaration given to her.

I know the Greek. It's effectively the same thing.

You can tell yourself what you want. But thinking you're correct, and actually being correct are different things.

How well do you know the languages? I've read every genre of Roman literature and most genres of Greek, including of course the NT. I lean more on Latin because it's a bit easier and I'm used to hearing it in church, but I know what I'm talking about. You look at the text, take it at face value, and the simple, straightforward meaning is that Mary consents to God's plan.

The explanation you gave regarding the Latin translation of that phrase in no way matches the Greek aorist optative.

But it does. The choice of mood only shows the reverence of her interior assent.

We've had no conversations about Mary and the serpent.

"Reverence to her Interior assent" is just your pure assumption. The Greek indicates nothing of the sort.

There simply isn't anything in that passage, verb tense and mood included, that indicates a choice was given to Mary. This is just another instance of Roman Catholicism having to derive from a verb's tense to "prove" something about Mary, such as their absolutely silly argument that "to be graced" means that Mary was sinless. It's all just ad hoc, made up nonsense, just like your "interior assent" argument.

And are you denying that you ever quoted that verse to say "SHE" crushes the head of the serpent?

Whether in Latin, Greek, or English, Mary said "let it be done."

I think you are confusing me with someone else as far as the serpent discussion goes.

And whether in Latin, Greek, or English, "let it be done" as a respose to God's declaration "you WILL" is not permission or obedience, it is submission to what's already been decided on God's part. Otherwise, you're saying that Mary could have falsified God simply by her choosing to. Your church's elevation of Mary is wicked and sickening to any true Christian.

And does this mean that you do deny that you ever quoted that verse in that way in this forum?

I don't think I've ever talked about that verse with you, although I don't disagree with what others have said about it.

By your reasoning, we all "falsify" God every time we break his commandments (he says "thou shalt not," yet we do). No doubt it would have been sinful for Mary to refuse. Are you saying she was incapable of sin?

"Thou shalt not" is nothing like "you will bear a son". One is a command to be obeyed, the other is a foretelling of what God has preordained. The whole of the angel's message was a foretelling, an anouncement of what WILL BE - "you will bear a son, he will be great, he will be called Son of the Most Hight, God will give him the throne of David, he will rule forever...."

You Catholics just can't be honest.

And here's your quote from page 21 of the "How to Get to Heaven" thread:

"Yes, but not for the reasons you seem to think. I suspect St. Alphonsus Liguori was alluding to this verse and to Mary's role in reclaiming the world for Christ and crushing the serpent under her feet."

LOL. Of course you Roman Catholics agree with this mistranslation. Who'd have doubted it?

Ah, of course...page 21.

I was still wrangling toddlers in those years, so forgive me for being distracted. I'll just repeat what I said then. We honor Mary's role in the Incarnation, but that doesn't take anything away from Christ.
BusyTarpDuster2017
How long do you want to ignore this user?
Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam LowryIf you're saying Zechariah would not agree that his "You will" is the same as Mary's "You will", then what on earth do you base that on? Regardless, it wouldn't even be relevant, as what Zechariah believes (as if we're even in position to know this) doesn't even change the argument at all. The "you will" is the same kind of declaration. To suggest one implies consent while the other doesn't is a completely baseless form of reasoning. said:

Quote:

Quote:

Quote:

Quote:

Quote:

Quote:

The angel didn't wait for Zechariah to say anything. He was struck dumb for his unbelief.

Which has what to do with the fact that the angel's "you will" did not involve his consent, in the same way that it didn't for Mary?

Nothing. Any attempt to turn either "you will" into a declaration that is contingent upon the person's consent or obedience is sheer dishonesty or ignorance.

Biblical language (and language in general) is more nuanced than that. The future tense isn't always just a flat declaration. It can also serve as a promise, prediction, or command. The Ten Commandments are a good example.

You also ignore the form of Mary's response. "Fiat" is a jussive subjunctive (from the Latin "iussus," meaning ordered or commanded). She's expressly giving the word for it to be done as the angel has said.

Mary did not speak in Latin. Neither did Luke write his gospel in Latin.

The Greek form of "Let it be done to me" is in the aorist optative, which means Mary is speaking as if she is wishing for all what was said by the angel to happen. This is not her giving permission or promising obedience, this is her looking forward to the fulfillment of the declaration given to her.

I know the Greek. It's effectively the same thing.

You can tell yourself what you want. But thinking you're correct, and actually being correct are different things.

How well do you know the languages? I've read every genre of Roman literature and most genres of Greek, including of course the NT. I lean more on Latin because it's a bit easier and I'm used to hearing it in church, but I know what I'm talking about. You look at the text, take it at face value, and the simple, straightforward meaning is that Mary consents to God's plan.

The explanation you gave regarding the Latin translation of that phrase in no way matches the Greek aorist optative.

But it does. The choice of mood only shows the reverence of her interior assent.

We've had no conversations about Mary and the serpent.

"Reverence to her Interior assent" is just your pure assumption. The Greek indicates nothing of the sort.

There simply isn't anything in that passage, verb tense and mood included, that indicates a choice was given to Mary. This is just another instance of Roman Catholicism having to derive from a verb's tense to "prove" something about Mary, such as their absolutely silly argument that "to be graced" means that Mary was sinless. It's all just ad hoc, made up nonsense, just like your "interior assent" argument.

And are you denying that you ever quoted that verse to say "SHE" crushes the head of the serpent?

Whether in Latin, Greek, or English, Mary said "let it be done."

I think you are confusing me with someone else as far as the serpent discussion goes.

And whether in Latin, Greek, or English, "let it be done" as a respose to God's declaration "you WILL" is not permission or obedience, it is submission to what's already been decided on God's part. Otherwise, you're saying that Mary could have falsified God simply by her choosing to. Your church's elevation of Mary is wicked and sickening to any true Christian.

And does this mean that you do deny that you ever quoted that verse in that way in this forum?

I don't think I've ever talked about that verse with you, although I don't disagree with what others have said about it.

By your reasoning, we all "falsify" God every time we break his commandments (he says "thou shalt not," yet we do). No doubt it would have been sinful for Mary to refuse. Are you saying she was incapable of sin?

"Thou shalt not" is nothing like "you will bear a son". One is a command to be obeyed, the other is a foretelling of what God has preordained. The whole of the angel's message was a foretelling, an anouncement of what WILL BE - "you will bear a son, he will be great, he will be called Son of the Most Hight, God will give him the throne of David, he will rule forever...."

You Catholics just can't be honest.

And here's your quote from page 21 of the "How to Get to Heaven" thread:

"Yes, but not for the reasons you seem to think. I suspect St. Alphonsus Liguori was alluding to this verse and to Mary's role in reclaiming the world for Christ and crushing the serpent under her feet."

LOL. Of course you Roman Catholics agree with this mistranslation. Who'd have doubted it?

Ah, of course...page 21.

I was still wrangling toddlers in those years, so forgive me for being distracted. I'll just repeat what I said then. We honor Mary's role in the Incarnation, but that doesn't take anything away from Christ.

Umm, yeah, what you said is the very definition of taking away from Christ.

Good lord, you guys are just SO dishonest. It's to the point where it's wickedness.
Sam Lowry
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BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam Lowry said:

BusyTarpDuster2017 said:

Sam LowryIf you're saying Zechariah would not agree that his "You will" is the same as Mary's "You will", then what on earth do you base that on? Regardless, it wouldn't even be relevant, as what Zechariah believes (as if we're even in position to know this) doesn't even change the argument at all. The "you will" is the same kind of declaration. To suggest one implies consent while the other doesn't is a completely baseless form of reasoning. said:

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The angel didn't wait for Zechariah to say anything. He was struck dumb for his unbelief.

Which has what to do with the fact that the angel's "you will" did not involve his consent, in the same way that it didn't for Mary?

Nothing. Any attempt to turn either "you will" into a declaration that is contingent upon the person's consent or obedience is sheer dishonesty or ignorance.

Biblical language (and language in general) is more nuanced than that. The future tense isn't always just a flat declaration. It can also serve as a promise, prediction, or command. The Ten Commandments are a good example.

You also ignore the form of Mary's response. "Fiat" is a jussive subjunctive (from the Latin "iussus," meaning ordered or commanded). She's expressly giving the word for it to be done as the angel has said.

Mary did not speak in Latin. Neither did Luke write his gospel in Latin.

The Greek form of "Let it be done to me" is in the aorist optative, which means Mary is speaking as if she is wishing for all what was said by the angel to happen. This is not her giving permission or promising obedience, this is her looking forward to the fulfillment of the declaration given to her.

I know the Greek. It's effectively the same thing.

You can tell yourself what you want. But thinking you're correct, and actually being correct are different things.

How well do you know the languages? I've read every genre of Roman literature and most genres of Greek, including of course the NT. I lean more on Latin because it's a bit easier and I'm used to hearing it in church, but I know what I'm talking about. You look at the text, take it at face value, and the simple, straightforward meaning is that Mary consents to God's plan.

The explanation you gave regarding the Latin translation of that phrase in no way matches the Greek aorist optative.

But it does. The choice of mood only shows the reverence of her interior assent.

We've had no conversations about Mary and the serpent.

"Reverence to her Interior assent" is just your pure assumption. The Greek indicates nothing of the sort.

There simply isn't anything in that passage, verb tense and mood included, that indicates a choice was given to Mary. This is just another instance of Roman Catholicism having to derive from a verb's tense to "prove" something about Mary, such as their absolutely silly argument that "to be graced" means that Mary was sinless. It's all just ad hoc, made up nonsense, just like your "interior assent" argument.

And are you denying that you ever quoted that verse to say "SHE" crushes the head of the serpent?

Whether in Latin, Greek, or English, Mary said "let it be done."

I think you are confusing me with someone else as far as the serpent discussion goes.

And whether in Latin, Greek, or English, "let it be done" as a respose to God's declaration "you WILL" is not permission or obedience, it is submission to what's already been decided on God's part. Otherwise, you're saying that Mary could have falsified God simply by her choosing to. Your church's elevation of Mary is wicked and sickening to any true Christian.

And does this mean that you do deny that you ever quoted that verse in that way in this forum?

I don't think I've ever talked about that verse with you, although I don't disagree with what others have said about it.

By your reasoning, we all "falsify" God every time we break his commandments (he says "thou shalt not," yet we do). No doubt it would have been sinful for Mary to refuse. Are you saying she was incapable of sin?

"Thou shalt not" is nothing like "you will bear a son". One is a command to be obeyed, the other is a foretelling of what God has preordained. The whole of the angel's message was a foretelling, an anouncement of what WILL BE - "you will bear a son, he will be great, he will be called Son of the Most Hight, God will give him the throne of David, he will rule forever...."

You Catholics just can't be honest.

And here's your quote from page 21 of the "How to Get to Heaven" thread:

"Yes, but not for the reasons you seem to think. I suspect St. Alphonsus Liguori was alluding to this verse and to Mary's role in reclaiming the world for Christ and crushing the serpent under her feet."

LOL. Of course you Roman Catholics agree with this mistranslation. Who'd have doubted it?

Ah, of course...page 21.

I was still wrangling toddlers in those years, so forgive me for being distracted. I'll just repeat what I said then. We honor Mary's role in the Incarnation, but that doesn't take anything away from Christ.

Umm, yeah, what you said is the very definition of taking away from Christ.

Good lord, you guys are just SO dishonest. It's to the point where it's wickedness.

Not sure what's so offensive about the fact that Mary gave birth to our Savior, but okay.
 
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