BusyTarpDuster2017 said:
Doc Holliday said:
BusyTarpDuster2017 said:
Doc HollidayStop lying. said:
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The moment you open your mouth to explain why a verse is plain…you're no longer just reading Scripture. Period.
You can't practice "muh plain language". Sola scriptura is theoretical and paradoxical. You can't escape this. Not gonna happen.
To say "it's essential because that's what it says in the plain language" is a massive piece of circular reasoning. The "plain language" to a Calvinist says one thing; the "plain language" to an Arminian, a Lutheran, or a Baptist says another.
There is a massive difference between using your reason to locate the Ark, and claiming you can swim the Atlantic on your own. One is an act of epistemic humility (submitting your intellect to Christ's Church), and the other is an act of epistemic hubris (trusting your own private judgment to never err).
The irony is that you're using your own private judgment to tell me private judgment is impossible.
You say I can't trust my reading of Scripture, but somehow you can trust your reading of history, councils, bishops, and church claims enough to declare them infallible. Ironic.
And stop pretending "plain meaning" is circular. If language can't communicate meaning apart from an institutional interpreter, then councils are just as doomed as Scripture. Their words require interpretation too.
In the end, you didn't escape private judgment. You used private judgment to choose an authority and then called your choice "submission."
In short, you're the liar.
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You think you've caught me in a massive "gotcha" by pointing out that I had to use my own brain to choose Orthodoxy, but you're completely missing the distinction between locating an authority and being the authority. If I get sick, use my private judgment to look up medical credentials, and choose a doctor, that doesn't mean I'm acting as my own physician. I used my brain once to find an expert, and then I stepped aside, sat on the table, and took the prescription. That's what I did with the Church. I looked at history, located the unbroken, 2,000-year-old living community, and climbed aboard.
You, on the other hand, are standing there with a medical textbook, performing DIY surgery on yourself, and claiming you don't need a doctor because the textbook has "plain language."
Suppose the doctor you choose mistakenly prescribes a drug that is contraindicated in someone with your particular health history. Someone else can point this out to you by showing you the clear language in a medical textbook that expressly warns doctors to avoid the drug in your situation. Would you not request a review or correction by your doctor? Or would you disregard your understanding of what the textbook says, and instead "submit your intellect" entirely to your doctor at all costs?
When a patient catches a contraindication and flags it, they don't then rewrite their own prescription and self-medicate based on their reading of the textbook. They bring it back to the doctor, or get a second medical opinion, and let a qualified authority adjudicate the concern. The correction still runs through the system of medical authority, not around it.
That's exactly how it works in the Church. Scripture itself, the Fathers, a monk's private reading, a layman's objection… all of these can and do raise concerns. History is full of it. But the resolution of those concerns happens through the Church's councils, bishops in communion with one another, the historic conciliar process, not through an individual's private judgment becoming the final court of appeal.
.... and if your chosen doctor says "I'm infallible, you can't question me. Do what I say and take that drug"?
Let me remind you of your own analogy - the doctor is the Church (and it's councils), NOT an individual church father, monk, or layperson.
That's a great question, but you're describing a doctor who declares himself infallible by his own say so and forecloses all future review. That's not the Orthodox model, that's the very thing Orthodoxy rejects about Rome. We don't have a single mouth (a pope, a patriarch, any one bishop or council) that gets to stand up and say "I'm infallible, don't question me," and have that self declaration be the end of the conversation.
A council doesn't become authoritative by claiming authority for itself. It becomes authoritative through reception: the whole Body, across centuries and geography, recognizing that what the council said matches what the Church has always believed. That's why Nicaea and Chalcedon stand and Rimini-Seleucia and the "Robber Council" of 449 don't, even though all of them were councils that, in the moment, claimed to speak for the Church. The check on tyranny isn't "trust the doctor no matter what he says." The check is that the doctor's diagnosis has to actually hold up against the whole body of the Church's memory, over time, or it gets rejected.
So to answer directly: no, a "doctor" (a council, a bishop, anyone) doesn't get to claim unquestionable status and end the discussion right there. What ends the discussion is time and reception, not self-assertion. That's actually the built-in immune system against exactly the abuse you're describing…which is also my objection to Roman papal infallibility.
A doctor who "declares himself infallible by his own say so and forecloses all future review" is exactly like your church declaring that its accepted councils (as well as liturgy) are infallible (according to its own interpretation from Scripture that they are given this infallibility), which by definition can not be changed by future review. Do you seriously think it's different?
And if church authority comes by reception of the whole body of believers that the church has said only "what the church has always believed", then now you're competing with Roman Catholicism who makes that very same claim. And because both are making the same claim, it comes down to who has the correct intepretation of what the church body "has always believed" - which then circles right back to each church's own claim to infallible authority over interpretation. See the problem? Your "time and reception" argument is only making the situation worse for your argument. Both churches will claim that the other church is the "doctor" whose treatment decisions does NOT "hold up against the whole body of the medical establishment's memory, over time".
In your "doctor" analogy, I'm like the person who is showing you the clear language of the medical textbook or research paper that your doctor's diagnosis and treatment plan is dangerous, and not in line with the medical establishment. I'm showing you the glaringly obvious idolatry, gospel distortion, and non-apostolic origins of your church's beliefs and practices, straight out of Scripture, church history, facts, and basic logic. And to my dismay, I'm witnessing your stubborn, blind devotion to your doctor borne out of your flawed assessment of him, in spite of all the clear evidence against him, as you proceed to loyally swallow his prescription that leads to your demise.
Reception isn't the Church "declaring" anything, it's a passive, centuries-long, decentralized process with no single authority pulling the lever. Rimini-Seleucia (359) was bigger, more official, and more universally attended than Nicaea, and it still got rejected once the wider Church chewed on it. That's not compatible with "the Church just declares what it wants and calls it infallible".
You're right that Rome makes a parallel claim and that's why it's testable. Name one clear instance, before the schism, of a bishop of Rome exercising the kind of universal, immediate jurisdiction Vatican I defines: actual binding authority over the whole Church by unilateral right. You won't find one that isn't contested by historians on all sides. Meanwhile Chalcedon's Christology and Nicaea's homoousios are traceable in the patristic record independent of any later claim that they're infallible.
You're having a hard time understanding Orthodoxy authority.
There's no single locus of authority in Orthodoxy, that's the point, not a bug. You keep trying to force my answer into a shape it isn't. You're looking for the "one thing" that decides: a pope, a book, a single council session, because that's how your own framework works: one authority (or one interpreter) issuing a ruling.
Authority in Orthodoxy is conciliar and synergistic, it lives in the whole Body (bishops, clergy, monastics, laity) discerning together over time. No pope can force a result top-down. No individual believer can settle it bottom-up either. A council proposes: the Body either recognizes it as continuous with what it has always believed, or it doesn't, and no one figure or session gets to override that by fiat. That's exactly why councils have been overturned even after claiming full authority.
Christ promised the Spirit would guide the Church into all truth (John 16:13), and that promise is to the whole Body, not to one office. So when you ask "who's the one authority that decides", there isn't one man or book holding that role. There's the Spirit, working through the whole Body over time. the Body that discerned this way has stayed in doctrinal and sacramental communion with itself, across the largest span of time and geography of any Christian body in history. Not because everyone always agreed on everything, but because the Spirit guided reception process produced the agreement that held.
Rome broke from that communion in 1054. The Reformation fractured further, over and over, precisely because it swapped the Spirit guided Body for either one man or one private interpreter. Orthodoxy's continuity isn't an accident.